pharmacology quiz ( 51 to 102 ) questions and answers
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pharmacology quiz ( 1 to 50 ) question link-https://www.nursingofficer.net/2021/04/pharmacology-mcq-questions.html
pharmacology quiz ( 103 to 153) question link-https://www.nursingofficer.net/2021/04/pharmacology-mcq-quiz.html
Q 51 Following image show which medicine affect urine colour
(a) pyrazinamide
(b) ethambutol
(c) rifampicin
(d) isoniazid
Answer- C
Q.52 Identify Type of vaccine given shown in Diagram ?
(a) MMR
(b) DPT
© TT
(d) BCG
ANSWER-4
Q. 53. Which of the following agents causes discoloration of teeth if taken with milk?
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Penicillin
(c) Metronidazole
(d) Ciprofloxacin
Correct answer- A
Tetracycline is a bacteriostatic antibiotic which should not be administered with milk because calcium present in milk will form calcium tetracycline chelating agent.
This chelating agent will get deposited into developing teeth and bones, which cause
discoloration and ill formed teeth.
Q.54. Drugs that bind the ions of heavy metals to form a stable nontoxic compound which can be easily excreted by kidney is
(a) Antimetabolite
(b) Chelating agent
(c) Antibodies
(d) TNF agent
Correct answer- B
Q. 55. Clotrimazole is
(a) Antiviral drug
(b) Antifungal drug
(c) Anti protozoal drug
(d) Antibacterial drug
Correct answer- B
Clotrimazole is an antifungal drug used for treatment of tinea (any fungal skin disease occurring on various parts of the body) and vaginal or oral candidiasis,
Q.56 Many bacteria are now resistant to penicillin, because:
(a) Penicillin cause gene mutations, some of which are beneficial
(b) Previously resistant forms survived and reproduced better than non-resistance forms
(c) hospital environment inhibits competitions among bacteria
(d) Penicillin triggers the synthesis of resistant proteins
Correct answer- B
Due to chance mutations, not by penicillin, some bacteria acquired an ability to produce an enzyme like penicillinase that inactivates most forms of penicillin, and produce penicillin resistance bacteria.
Now these previously resistant forms survived and reproduced better than non-resistance forms
Q.57 Which test result should a nurse review to determine if the antibiotic prescribed for the patient will be effective?
(a) Serologic test
(b) Sensitivity test
(c) Serum osmolality
(d) Sedimentation rate
Correct answer- B
Q.58 What is the precautionary step to be taken before administering an antiserum/antitoxin?
(a) CSF test
(b) Blood test
(c) Urine test
(d) Sensitivity test
Correct answer- D
Q.59 Which is the following drug is used in the treatment of roundworm infestation:
(a) Cotrimoxazole
(b) Fluconazole
(c) Albendazole
(d) Ornidazole
Correct answer- C
Albendazole, mebendazole, piperazine, levamisole, DEC (diethylcarbamazine citrate) and ivermectin are anthelmintic drugs.
An agent that treats or destroys or expel parasitic worms or helminths (roundworm, hookworm, threadworm, tapeworm, filaria etc.) called anthelmintic,
Q.60 Anthelmintic drugs are used for the treatment of disorder caused by
(a) Bacteria
(b) Viruses
(c) Worms
(d) Protozoa
Correct answer- C
Q.61 After administration of mebendazole (vermox) to a 4 year old child for pinworms, the nurse should observe the child for :
(a) Convulsions
(b) Hypertension
(c) Intestinal bleeding
(d) Worms in stool
Correct answer- D
Q.62. What is the most common adverse effect of antibiotics used to treat gram-negative bacteria?
(a) Platelet dysfunction
(b) Oral ulcers
(c) Oliguria and dysuria
(d) Diarrhoea
Correct answer- D
Certain antibiotics (mainly antibiotics used to treat gram-negative bacteria like aminoglycoside) may reduce the number and kinds of commensal bacteria present into colon, which result into diarrhoea.
Commonsale intestinal floras are mainly gram negative bacteria, like E.coli.
Q.63 Which following is side effect of streptomycin
(a) gih cranial nerve
(b) Damage to growing cartilage
(c) Bone marrow depression
(d) Diarrhoea
Correct answer- A
Aminoglycoside antibiotic like streptomycin (used mainly as anti-tubercular drug), gentamicin, amikacin etc. may cause ototoxicity due to damage of gi cranial nerve (vestibulo cochlear nerve) and sensory hair cells.
Q.64 A patient who is receiving antibiotic therapy complaints of ringing in the ears, this ototoxicity is damage to
(a) 4th CN
(b) 8th CN
(c) 7thCN
(d) 9th CN
Correct answer-B
Q.65. Most serious side effect of streptomycin is:
(a) Ototoxicity
(b) Ocular toxicity
(c) Hepatotoxicity
(d) Bleeding disorder
Correct answer- A
Q. 66. Which of the following anti-tuberculosis drugs can damage the 8th cranial nerve?
(a) Isoniazid (INH)
(b) Para-amino-salicylic acid (PAS)
(c) Ethambutol hydrochloride (myambutol)
(d) Streptomycin
Correct answer- D
Q. 67. Streptomycin is used in treatment of infections. The nurse should observe for?
(a) Agranulocytosis
(b) Edema, especially of the face
(c) Impairment of hearing and equilibrium
(d) Oliguria
Correct answer- C
Q. 68. A patient taking aminoglycoside therapy for a long time, which lab investigation should be checked frequently by a nurse?
(a) Blood glucose
(b) Serum Potassium
(c) RBC count
(d) ABG analysis
Correct answer- B
Long term use of aminoglycoside may cause nephrotoxicity along with ototoxicity.
So serum potassium level, blood urea nitrogen, creatinine and uric acid level should be checked frequently by a nurse to monitor glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and renal failure.
Q.69 A 65-year-old patient with pneumonia is receiving garamycin (Gentamicin). most important for nurse to monitor which laboratory values in this patient?
(a) Hemoglobin and hematocrit
(b) Blood Urea Nitrogen and creatinine
(c) Platelet count and clotting time
(d) Sodium and potassium
Correct answer- B
Q.70. A patient receiving aminoglycoside antibiotic need to undergo which investigation positive (a) Serum sodium
(b) Serum potassium
(c) RBC count
(d) Serum creatinine
Correct answer- D
Q.71. What is the major nursing responsibility when administering sulfonamide preparation?
(a) Monitor child's temperature
(b) Weigh the child daily
(c) Give milk with medication
(d) Administer drug at prescribed times
Correct answer- D
Q.72. Which of the following adverse reactions may occur with administration of erythromycin? (a) weight gain
(b) constipation
(c) increased vomiting
(d) nausea & vomiting
Correct answer- D
Common side effects of erythromycin are diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, anorexia, skin reaction and sore throat.
Q.73 Bark of which plant yield famous drug of malaria
(a) Cinchona
(b) Quercus
(c) Betula
(d) Eucalyptus
Correct answer- A
Cinchona is a genus of tree, from which dried bark the famous anti-malarial drug quinine is derived.
Q. 74. Drug of choice for treatment of bacillary dysentery
(a) Nalidixic acid
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Tetracycline
(d) Ofloxacin
Correct Answer-A
Diarrhoea contains blood and mucus caused by bacterial infections of the colon by strains of Shigella, Salmonella, Campylobacter and Escherichia coli called bacillary dysentery.
Bacillary dysentery is mainly treated by nalidixic acid, ciprofloxacin and norfloxacin.
Q.75 Drugs used into treatment of ringworm
(a) Anti-bodies
(b) Anti-fungal
(c) Anti-viral
(d) Anthelmintic
Correct Answer- B
Ringworm (mycoses) means any contagious skin infection caused by fungi of the genera Microsporum or Trichophyton.
Antifungal drugs like fluconazole, ketoconazole, clotrimazole, miconazole, amphotericinB, nystatin, griseofulvin etc. used to treat fungal infection.
Q 76. which antiviral drug among the following
(a) Acyclovir
(b) Ethambutol
(c) Ampicillin
(d) Tetracycline
Correct answer-A
Q.77. Acetaminophen toxicity is treated with:
a) N-Acetylcysteine
(b) Naloxone
(c) Sodium bicarbonate
(d) Flumazenil
Correct answer- A
Acetylcysteine is a medication that is used for the treatment of paracetamol (acetaminophen) overdose or toxicity.
It is also used to loosen thick mucus in cystic fibrosis and COPD.
Q.78. Which of the following is an antidote for acetaminophen poisoning?
(a) N-Acetyl cysteine
(b) Deferoxamine
(c) Physostigmine
(d) Digiband
Correct answer -A
Q.79. Antidote for insecticide poisoning is
(a) Physostigmine
(b) Atropine
(c) Diazepam
(d) EDTA
Correct answer-B
Atropine sulphate is used as an antidote of anti cholinesterase or cholinesterase inhibitors like insecticide or organophosphate poisoning.
Q.80. Antidote use in organo-phosphorus poisoning
(a) Neostigmine
(b) Atropine
(c) Magnesium sulphate
(d) D-penicillamine
Correct answer- B
Q.81 Sign/symptom of organo-phosphorus poisoning
(a) Fixed pupil
(b) Fixed & dilated pupil
(c) Dilated pupil
(d) Constricted pupil
Correct answer -D
Sign/symptom of organic phosphorus or anticholinesterase poisoning (it are easily available into household insecticide) are mionia (abnormally contracted pupils), lacrimation, salivation, sweating, hypotension & vascular collapse, diarrhoea, respiratory paralysis, weakness, tremors, convulsion, coma and death,
This poisoning increases the level of acetylcholine at different nerves and receptors in the body, because acetyl-cholinesterase (an enzyme that stops the action of acetylcholine) is blocked.
Antidotes used in organic phosphorus or anticholinesterase poisoning are atropine 2 mg IV, which is repeated every 10 minute till dryness of mouth occurs.
Q.82 A patient has undergone mitral valve replacement having persistent bleeding from surgical incision in the early postoperative period, which drug will be administered:
(a) Protamine sulfate
(b) Vitamin-C
(c) Quinidine sulphate
(d) Warfarin sodium
Correct answer- A
Because the persistent bleeding occurring after the mitral valve replacement surgery, so there may be chance of persistent bleeding due to overdose of heparin
The most common side effect of heparin overdose is abnormal bleeding. overdose of heparin is antagonist - protamine sulfate.
Quinine sulfate is an antiarrhythmic drug that can be used to control atrial fibrillation.
Q.83 Antidote for heparin is:
(a) Vitamin K
(b) Protamine sulphate
(c) Amiodarone
(d) Aminocarpoic acid
Correct answer- B
Q.84 Drugs used to counteract the bleeding complication due to heparin overdose
(a) Calcium gluconate
(b) Protamine sulphate
(c) Methergine
(d) Nitrofurantoin
Correct answer- B
Q.85. Intravenous heparin therapy is ordered for a client, while implementing this order, a nurse ensures that which of the following medications is available in the nursing unit.
(a) Vitamin K
(b) Aminocaproic acid
(c) Potassium chloride
(d) Protamine sulphate
Correct answer- D
Q.86. Antidote for Warfarin is:
(a) Vitamin K
(b) Naloxone
(c) Amiodarone
(d) Protamine sulphate
Correct answer- A
Q.87. Which among the following is an excitatory amino acid receptor antagonist?
(a) Phencyclidine
(b) Quisqualate
(c) Homocysteine
(d) Kainate
Correct answer- A
An excitatory amino acid receptor antagonist, or glutamate receptor antagonist, is a chemical substance which antagonizes one or more of the glutamate receptors, examples are phencyclidine, ketamine etc.
Q. 88. The antidote of morphine overdose is:
(a) N-acetylcysteine
(b) Naloxone
(c) Atropine sulphate
(d) Esmolol
Correct answer- B
Naloxone and nalorphine are used as antagonists (antidote) of narcotics or opiates such as morphine, methadone and opium.
It is helpful in reversing the respiratory depression caused by an overdose of narcotics.
Q.89. The medication used to combat an over of narcotics is :
(a) Amphetamine sulfate
(b) Naloxone hydrochloride
(c) Dextroamphetamine
(d) Caffeine sodium benzoate
Correct answer- B
Q. 90. Which antidote should be given for narcotics administration?
(a) Nalorphine
(b) Diazepam
(c) Sperine
(d) All the above
Correct answer- A
Q.91. Antidote of opioid that mother has received
during labour pains is
(a) Naloxone
(b) Mephentine
(c) Clexane
(d) Bromhexin
Correct answer- A
Q. 92. Which is the drug used as an antidote for narcotics in obstetrical practice?
(a) Atropine
(b) Naloxone
(c) Nitrous oxide
(d) Corticosteroids.
Correct answer- B
Q.93. Severe allergic reaction to a drug is known as
(a) Anaphylactic
(b) Interaction
(c) Adverse
(d) Toxicity
Correct answer- A
Q. 94. Anaphylaxis is the term used in.....condition
(a) Allergic reaction
(b) Excessive sleep
(c) Pyrexia of unknown cause
(d) Prognosis of disease
Correct answer- A
Q.95. Which of the following immunoglobulin will be high in a person with an allergy?
(a) IgE
(b) IgG
(c) Ig M
(d) IgA
Correct answer- A
Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is an immunoglobulin that attaches to the mast cells and plays a major role in allergic reactions or type 1 hypersensitivity reactions.
About 50% of patients with allergies have increased IgE levels.
Q.96. Which of the following is the immunoglobulin, synthesized by plasma cells, that is responsible for allergic reactions?
(a) IgM
(b) IgA
(c) IgD
(d) IgE
Correct answer- D
Q. 97. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by:
(a) IgE
(b) IgG
(c) IgM
(d) IgA
Correct answer- A
Q. 98. Mechanisms of Type- II hypersensitivity includes all except-
(a) Immune complex disease
(b) Antibody mediated cellular dysfunction
(c) Complement and Fc-receptor mediated inflammation
(d) Opsonization and phagocytosis
Correct answer- A
99. The medicine given during acute anaphylactic reaction is:
(a) Atropine
(b) Aminophylline
(c) Deriphyllin
(d) Adrenaline
Correct answer- D
Acute anaphylactic reaction or anaphylaxis is a life threatening type 1 hypersensitivity (severe allergic reaction.
Management of severe drug allergy (hypersensitivity reaction) according priority:
o Stop the offending drug immediately.
o Administer O, at high flow rate & give CPR if required
. o Administer inj. Adrenaline/Epinephrine 0.5 mg (1: 1000 dilutions) IM, and repeat 5-10
minute interval if patient not improved.
o If anaphylactic shock is immediate life threatening administer injection adrenaline
(1:10,000 or 1:100,000 dilution) by IV route
o Administer Hi receptor blocker or antihistamines, e.g. CPM (chlorpheniramine maleate)cetirizine and levocetirizine.
o Administer glucocorticoid e.g. hydrocortisone sodium (primacort 100-200mg). 100.
Q.100 Most important drug to control anaphylactic shock is
(a) Hydrocortisone
(b) Dopamine
(c) Dexamethasone
(d) Adrenaline/epinephrine
Correct answer- D
Q.101. Which drug causes a side effect referred as 'gray baby' in neonate?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Amikacin
(c) MgSO4
(d) Oxytocin
Correct answer- A
Gray Baby Syndrome means the appearance of vomiting, absence of sucking response, irregular and rapid respiration, abdominal distention and cyanosis in newborn.
It occurs if a newborn is treated with chloramphenicol at birth.
Q.102 Which drug is responsible for "red man syndrome?
(a) Vancomycin
(b) Linezolid
(c) Chloramphenicol
(d) Cefadroxil
Correct answer- A
Red man (neck) syndrome:- An adverse anaphylactic reaction to vancomycin which is characterized by pruritus, flushing and erythema of the head and upper body.
The condition is caused by release of histamine and it can be prevented by slowing the infusion rate of vancomycin.
Q 51 Following image show which medicine affect urine colour
(a) pyrazinamide
(b) ethambutol
(c) rifampicin
(d) isoniazid
Answer- C
Q.52 Identify Type of vaccine given shown in Diagram ?
(a) MMR
(b) DPT
© TT
(d) BCG
ANSWER-4
Q. 53. Which of the following agents causes discoloration of teeth if taken with milk?
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Penicillin
(c) Metronidazole
(d) Ciprofloxacin
Correct answer- A
Tetracycline is a bacteriostatic antibiotic which should not be administered with milk because calcium present in milk will form calcium tetracycline chelating agent.
This chelating agent will get deposited into developing teeth and bones, which cause
discoloration and ill formed teeth.
Q.54. Drugs that bind the ions of heavy metals to form a stable nontoxic compound which can be easily excreted by kidney is
(a) Antimetabolite
(b) Chelating agent
(c) Antibodies
(d) TNF agent
Correct answer- B
Q. 55. Clotrimazole is
(a) Antiviral drug
(b) Antifungal drug
(c) Anti protozoal drug
(d) Antibacterial drug
Correct answer- B
Clotrimazole is an antifungal drug used for treatment of tinea (any fungal skin disease occurring on various parts of the body) and vaginal or oral candidiasis,
Q.56 Many bacteria are now resistant to penicillin, because:
(a) Penicillin cause gene mutations, some of which are beneficial
(b) Previously resistant forms survived and reproduced better than non-resistance forms
(c) hospital environment inhibits competitions among bacteria
(d) Penicillin triggers the synthesis of resistant proteins
Correct answer- B
Due to chance mutations, not by penicillin, some bacteria acquired an ability to produce an enzyme like penicillinase that inactivates most forms of penicillin, and produce penicillin resistance bacteria.
Now these previously resistant forms survived and reproduced better than non-resistance forms
Q.57 Which test result should a nurse review to determine if the antibiotic prescribed for the patient will be effective?
(a) Serologic test
(b) Sensitivity test
(c) Serum osmolality
(d) Sedimentation rate
Correct answer- B
Q.58 What is the precautionary step to be taken before administering an antiserum/antitoxin?
(a) CSF test
(b) Blood test
(c) Urine test
(d) Sensitivity test
Correct answer- D
Q.59 Which is the following drug is used in the treatment of roundworm infestation:
(a) Cotrimoxazole
(b) Fluconazole
(c) Albendazole
(d) Ornidazole
Correct answer- C
Albendazole, mebendazole, piperazine, levamisole, DEC (diethylcarbamazine citrate) and ivermectin are anthelmintic drugs.
An agent that treats or destroys or expel parasitic worms or helminths (roundworm, hookworm, threadworm, tapeworm, filaria etc.) called anthelmintic,
Q.60 Anthelmintic drugs are used for the treatment of disorder caused by
(a) Bacteria
(b) Viruses
(c) Worms
(d) Protozoa
Correct answer- C
Q.61 After administration of mebendazole (vermox) to a 4 year old child for pinworms, the nurse should observe the child for :
(a) Convulsions
(b) Hypertension
(c) Intestinal bleeding
(d) Worms in stool
Correct answer- D
Q.62. What is the most common adverse effect of antibiotics used to treat gram-negative bacteria?
(a) Platelet dysfunction
(b) Oral ulcers
(c) Oliguria and dysuria
(d) Diarrhoea
Correct answer- D
Certain antibiotics (mainly antibiotics used to treat gram-negative bacteria like aminoglycoside) may reduce the number and kinds of commensal bacteria present into colon, which result into diarrhoea.
Commonsale intestinal floras are mainly gram negative bacteria, like E.coli.
Q.63 Which following is side effect of streptomycin
(a) gih cranial nerve
(b) Damage to growing cartilage
(c) Bone marrow depression
(d) Diarrhoea
Correct answer- A
Aminoglycoside antibiotic like streptomycin (used mainly as anti-tubercular drug), gentamicin, amikacin etc. may cause ototoxicity due to damage of gi cranial nerve (vestibulo cochlear nerve) and sensory hair cells.
Q.64 A patient who is receiving antibiotic therapy complaints of ringing in the ears, this ototoxicity is damage to
(a) 4th CN
(b) 8th CN
(c) 7thCN
(d) 9th CN
Correct answer-B
Q.65. Most serious side effect of streptomycin is:
(a) Ototoxicity
(b) Ocular toxicity
(c) Hepatotoxicity
(d) Bleeding disorder
Correct answer- A
Q. 66. Which of the following anti-tuberculosis drugs can damage the 8th cranial nerve?
(a) Isoniazid (INH)
(b) Para-amino-salicylic acid (PAS)
(c) Ethambutol hydrochloride (myambutol)
(d) Streptomycin
Correct answer- D
Q. 67. Streptomycin is used in treatment of infections. The nurse should observe for?
(a) Agranulocytosis
(b) Edema, especially of the face
(c) Impairment of hearing and equilibrium
(d) Oliguria
Correct answer- C
Q. 68. A patient taking aminoglycoside therapy for a long time, which lab investigation should be checked frequently by a nurse?
(a) Blood glucose
(b) Serum Potassium
(c) RBC count
(d) ABG analysis
Correct answer- B
Long term use of aminoglycoside may cause nephrotoxicity along with ototoxicity.
So serum potassium level, blood urea nitrogen, creatinine and uric acid level should be checked frequently by a nurse to monitor glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and renal failure.
Q.69 A 65-year-old patient with pneumonia is receiving garamycin (Gentamicin). most important for nurse to monitor which laboratory values in this patient?
(a) Hemoglobin and hematocrit
(b) Blood Urea Nitrogen and creatinine
(c) Platelet count and clotting time
(d) Sodium and potassium
Correct answer- B
Q.70. A patient receiving aminoglycoside antibiotic need to undergo which investigation positive (a) Serum sodium
(b) Serum potassium
(c) RBC count
(d) Serum creatinine
Correct answer- D
Q.71. What is the major nursing responsibility when administering sulfonamide preparation?
(a) Monitor child's temperature
(b) Weigh the child daily
(c) Give milk with medication
(d) Administer drug at prescribed times
Correct answer- D
Q.72. Which of the following adverse reactions may occur with administration of erythromycin? (a) weight gain
(b) constipation
(c) increased vomiting
(d) nausea & vomiting
Correct answer- D
Common side effects of erythromycin are diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, anorexia, skin reaction and sore throat.
Q.73 Bark of which plant yield famous drug of malaria
(a) Cinchona
(b) Quercus
(c) Betula
(d) Eucalyptus
Correct answer- A
Cinchona is a genus of tree, from which dried bark the famous anti-malarial drug quinine is derived.
Q. 74. Drug of choice for treatment of bacillary dysentery
(a) Nalidixic acid
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Tetracycline
(d) Ofloxacin
Correct Answer-A
Diarrhoea contains blood and mucus caused by bacterial infections of the colon by strains of Shigella, Salmonella, Campylobacter and Escherichia coli called bacillary dysentery.
Bacillary dysentery is mainly treated by nalidixic acid, ciprofloxacin and norfloxacin.
Q.75 Drugs used into treatment of ringworm
(a) Anti-bodies
(b) Anti-fungal
(c) Anti-viral
(d) Anthelmintic
Correct Answer- B
Ringworm (mycoses) means any contagious skin infection caused by fungi of the genera Microsporum or Trichophyton.
Antifungal drugs like fluconazole, ketoconazole, clotrimazole, miconazole, amphotericinB, nystatin, griseofulvin etc. used to treat fungal infection.
Q 76. which antiviral drug among the following
(a) Acyclovir
(b) Ethambutol
(c) Ampicillin
(d) Tetracycline
Correct answer-A
Q.77. Acetaminophen toxicity is treated with:
a) N-Acetylcysteine
(b) Naloxone
(c) Sodium bicarbonate
(d) Flumazenil
Correct answer- A
Acetylcysteine is a medication that is used for the treatment of paracetamol (acetaminophen) overdose or toxicity.
It is also used to loosen thick mucus in cystic fibrosis and COPD.
Q.78. Which of the following is an antidote for acetaminophen poisoning?
(a) N-Acetyl cysteine
(b) Deferoxamine
(c) Physostigmine
(d) Digiband
Correct answer -A
Q.79. Antidote for insecticide poisoning is
(a) Physostigmine
(b) Atropine
(c) Diazepam
(d) EDTA
Correct answer-B
Atropine sulphate is used as an antidote of anti cholinesterase or cholinesterase inhibitors like insecticide or organophosphate poisoning.
Q.80. Antidote use in organo-phosphorus poisoning
(a) Neostigmine
(b) Atropine
(c) Magnesium sulphate
(d) D-penicillamine
Correct answer- B
Q.81 Sign/symptom of organo-phosphorus poisoning
(a) Fixed pupil
(b) Fixed & dilated pupil
(c) Dilated pupil
(d) Constricted pupil
Correct answer -D
Sign/symptom of organic phosphorus or anticholinesterase poisoning (it are easily available into household insecticide) are mionia (abnormally contracted pupils), lacrimation, salivation, sweating, hypotension & vascular collapse, diarrhoea, respiratory paralysis, weakness, tremors, convulsion, coma and death,
This poisoning increases the level of acetylcholine at different nerves and receptors in the body, because acetyl-cholinesterase (an enzyme that stops the action of acetylcholine) is blocked.
Antidotes used in organic phosphorus or anticholinesterase poisoning are atropine 2 mg IV, which is repeated every 10 minute till dryness of mouth occurs.
Q.82 A patient has undergone mitral valve replacement having persistent bleeding from surgical incision in the early postoperative period, which drug will be administered:
(a) Protamine sulfate
(b) Vitamin-C
(c) Quinidine sulphate
(d) Warfarin sodium
Correct answer- A
Because the persistent bleeding occurring after the mitral valve replacement surgery, so there may be chance of persistent bleeding due to overdose of heparin
The most common side effect of heparin overdose is abnormal bleeding. overdose of heparin is antagonist - protamine sulfate.
Quinine sulfate is an antiarrhythmic drug that can be used to control atrial fibrillation.
Q.83 Antidote for heparin is:
(a) Vitamin K
(b) Protamine sulphate
(c) Amiodarone
(d) Aminocarpoic acid
Correct answer- B
Q.84 Drugs used to counteract the bleeding complication due to heparin overdose
(a) Calcium gluconate
(b) Protamine sulphate
(c) Methergine
(d) Nitrofurantoin
Correct answer- B
Q.85. Intravenous heparin therapy is ordered for a client, while implementing this order, a nurse ensures that which of the following medications is available in the nursing unit.
(a) Vitamin K
(b) Aminocaproic acid
(c) Potassium chloride
(d) Protamine sulphate
Correct answer- D
Q.86. Antidote for Warfarin is:
(a) Vitamin K
(b) Naloxone
(c) Amiodarone
(d) Protamine sulphate
Correct answer- A
Q.87. Which among the following is an excitatory amino acid receptor antagonist?
(a) Phencyclidine
(b) Quisqualate
(c) Homocysteine
(d) Kainate
Correct answer- A
An excitatory amino acid receptor antagonist, or glutamate receptor antagonist, is a chemical substance which antagonizes one or more of the glutamate receptors, examples are phencyclidine, ketamine etc.
Q. 88. The antidote of morphine overdose is:
(a) N-acetylcysteine
(b) Naloxone
(c) Atropine sulphate
(d) Esmolol
Correct answer- B
Naloxone and nalorphine are used as antagonists (antidote) of narcotics or opiates such as morphine, methadone and opium.
It is helpful in reversing the respiratory depression caused by an overdose of narcotics.
Q.89. The medication used to combat an over of narcotics is :
(a) Amphetamine sulfate
(b) Naloxone hydrochloride
(c) Dextroamphetamine
(d) Caffeine sodium benzoate
Correct answer- B
Q. 90. Which antidote should be given for narcotics administration?
(a) Nalorphine
(b) Diazepam
(c) Sperine
(d) All the above
Correct answer- A
Q.91. Antidote of opioid that mother has received
during labour pains is
(a) Naloxone
(b) Mephentine
(c) Clexane
(d) Bromhexin
Correct answer- A
Q. 92. Which is the drug used as an antidote for narcotics in obstetrical practice?
(a) Atropine
(b) Naloxone
(c) Nitrous oxide
(d) Corticosteroids.
Correct answer- B
Q.93. Severe allergic reaction to a drug is known as
(a) Anaphylactic
(b) Interaction
(c) Adverse
(d) Toxicity
Correct answer- A
Q. 94. Anaphylaxis is the term used in.....condition
(a) Allergic reaction
(b) Excessive sleep
(c) Pyrexia of unknown cause
(d) Prognosis of disease
Correct answer- A
Q.95. Which of the following immunoglobulin will be high in a person with an allergy?
(a) IgE
(b) IgG
(c) Ig M
(d) IgA
Correct answer- A
Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is an immunoglobulin that attaches to the mast cells and plays a major role in allergic reactions or type 1 hypersensitivity reactions.
About 50% of patients with allergies have increased IgE levels.
Q.96. Which of the following is the immunoglobulin, synthesized by plasma cells, that is responsible for allergic reactions?
(a) IgM
(b) IgA
(c) IgD
(d) IgE
Correct answer- D
Q. 97. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by:
(a) IgE
(b) IgG
(c) IgM
(d) IgA
Correct answer- A
Q. 98. Mechanisms of Type- II hypersensitivity includes all except-
(a) Immune complex disease
(b) Antibody mediated cellular dysfunction
(c) Complement and Fc-receptor mediated inflammation
(d) Opsonization and phagocytosis
Correct answer- A
99. The medicine given during acute anaphylactic reaction is:
(a) Atropine
(b) Aminophylline
(c) Deriphyllin
(d) Adrenaline
Correct answer- D
Acute anaphylactic reaction or anaphylaxis is a life threatening type 1 hypersensitivity (severe allergic reaction.
Management of severe drug allergy (hypersensitivity reaction) according priority:
o Stop the offending drug immediately.
o Administer O, at high flow rate & give CPR if required
. o Administer inj. Adrenaline/Epinephrine 0.5 mg (1: 1000 dilutions) IM, and repeat 5-10
minute interval if patient not improved.
o If anaphylactic shock is immediate life threatening administer injection adrenaline
(1:10,000 or 1:100,000 dilution) by IV route
o Administer Hi receptor blocker or antihistamines, e.g. CPM (chlorpheniramine maleate)cetirizine and levocetirizine.
o Administer glucocorticoid e.g. hydrocortisone sodium (primacort 100-200mg). 100.
Q.100 Most important drug to control anaphylactic shock is
(a) Hydrocortisone
(b) Dopamine
(c) Dexamethasone
(d) Adrenaline/epinephrine
Correct answer- D
Q.101. Which drug causes a side effect referred as 'gray baby' in neonate?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Amikacin
(c) MgSO4
(d) Oxytocin
Correct answer- A
Gray Baby Syndrome means the appearance of vomiting, absence of sucking response, irregular and rapid respiration, abdominal distention and cyanosis in newborn.
It occurs if a newborn is treated with chloramphenicol at birth.
Q.102 Which drug is responsible for "red man syndrome?
(a) Vancomycin
(b) Linezolid
(c) Chloramphenicol
(d) Cefadroxil
Correct answer- A
Red man (neck) syndrome:- An adverse anaphylactic reaction to vancomycin which is characterized by pruritus, flushing and erythema of the head and upper body.
The condition is caused by release of histamine and it can be prevented by slowing the infusion rate of vancomycin.
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