ukmssb nursing tutor exam paper with answer key

ukmssb nursing tutor exam paper ( 04/07/2021 )with answer key

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1. Formula for Amount of fluid required in 24 hours for burn patient (in Litres) is

(A) (L)= (4 x Patient's weight (kg) x Percent body surface area (BSA) involved in burns)/ 1000

(B) (L)= (4 x Patient's weight (kg) x Percent body surface area (BSA) involved in burns)

(C) (L) = (4 x Patient's weight (lb) x Percent body surface area (BSA) involved in burns) / 1000

(D) (L) =(4 x Patient's weight (lb) x Percent body surface area (BSA) involved in burns)


2. In assessing the association between maternal nutritional status and the birth weight of the newborn, two investigators A and B studied separately and found significant results with P values 0.02 and 0.04 respectively. From this information, what can you infer about the magnitudes of association found by the two investigators?

(A) The magnitude of association found by investigator A is more than found by B

(B) The magnitude of association found by investigator B is more than that found by A

(C) The estimates of association obtained by A and B will be equal, since both are


(D) Nothing can be concluded as the information given is inadequate.


3. Breast Feeding Week is celebrated on:

(A) 1st week of March

(B) 1st week of July

(C) 1st week of August

(D) 1st December


4. Sullivan index is:

(A) Measures disability

(B) Measures life years adjusted with disability

(C) Measures life expectancy adjusted without disability or free of disability

(D) Measures life expectancy


5. DALY is :

(A) Disease - Adjusted Life year

B. Disability Adjusted Life year

(C) Disease Associated Life year

D. Disability Associated Life year


6. Iodine salt supplementation is:

(A) Specific protection

(B) Primordial prevention

(C) Decrease the deformity

(D) Secondary prevention


7. Quarantine is isolation of healthy individual:

(A) For longest incubation period of disease

(B) For shortest incubation period of disease

(C) For twice the incubation period of disease

(D) For period of generation time


8. Virulence of a disease is indicated by:

(A) Proportional mortality rate (B) Specific mortality rate (C) Case fatality rate (D) Amount of GDP spent on control of disease


9. Most universally accepted indicator of health status of whole population and their socio-economic conditions among the following is:

(A) Maternal Mortality Ratio

(B) Infant Mortality Rate

(€) Life expectancy

(D) Disease notification rates


10. MMR vaccine is given at the age of:

(A) 0-9 months (B) 12-15 months (C) 2-3 years (D) 10-19 years


11. Rubella include all except:

(A) Tender lymph nodes in the neck

(B) Congenital infection with cataract

(C) Incubation period < 10 days

(D) Caused by RNA virus


12. Which of the following is not a Gram negative bacteria:

(A) Salmonella typhi (B) Shigella dysenteriae (C) E. coli (D) S. aureus


13. Antitubercular drug which causes Optic neuritis is:

(A) Ethambutol (B) Rifampicin (C) Isoniazid (D) Pyrizinamide


14. Which of the following cell is involved in "cell mediated immunity”:

(A), T-cell (B) / B-cell (C) Both T & B cell (D) Mast cell


15. In tuberculosis, combination of Antimicrobials is used:

(A) To delay the development of resistance (B) To reduce toxicity (C) To Broaden anti-bacterial

spectrum To prevent Liberation of toxins from organisms


16. General fertility rate (GFR) is related to:

(A) Women in the reproductive age-group of 15-44 years

(B) Unmarried women in the age group of 15-44 years

C. Number of children a woman would have if she were to pass through her reproductive years

(D) Number of abortions, per 1000 women of child bearing age


17. The most common side effect of IUD insertion is:

(A) Bleeding (B) Pain (C) Pelvic infection (D) Ectopic pregnancy


18. Under ICDS, caloric supplement for pregnant women and nursing mother is:

(A) 300 Kcal, 8-10 grams of proteins (B) 200 Kcal, 10 grams proteins

(C) 100 Kcal, 15 grams proteins

(D) 600 Kcal, 20 grams proteins


19. The current recommendation for breast-feeding is that: .

(A) Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 6 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods

B. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 4 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods

(C) Colostrum is the most suitable food for a new born baby but it is best avoided in first 2 days

(D) The baby should be allowed to breast-feed till one year of age


20. 'Guthrie Test' is done in neonates for mass screening of:

(A) Neonatal Hypothyroidism J

B) Phenylketonuria

(C) Hemoglobinopathies

(D) Congenital Dislocation of Hip


21. What is the most commonly used definition of IUGR?

(A) Fetus whose estimated weight is below the 10th percentile for its gestational age

(B) Fetus whose estimated weight is below the 15th percentile for its gestational age

(C) Fetus whose estimated weight is below the 5th percentile for its gestational age

(D) Fetus whose estimated weight is below the 20th percentile for its gestational age


22. The Umbilical chord contains:

(A) Two arteries & two veins +

(B) One artery & one veint

(C) Two arteries & one vein

(D) One artery & one veint


23. Which sonographic parameter provides reliable estimates of gestational age between 12- and 24 weeks' gestation?

(A) CRL (crown-rump length) (B) BPD (biparietal diameter) (C) AC (abdominal circumference) (D) FL (femur length)


24. Which of the following is a risk factor for macrosomia?

(A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Female fetus (C) Preeclampsia (D) Oligohydramnios Golden colour ANSWER-A

25. amniotic fluid is seen in

(A) Rh incompatibility (B) Foetal death (C) IUGR

(D) Foetal distress


26. At which stage of development are children apt to believe in the reversibility of death?

(A) Adolescent. (B) Preschool age (C) School age (D) Toddler


27. The physical manifestations of fetal alcohol syndrome include:

(A) Cleft lip and palate.

(B) Hepatomegaly, hypotonia, and microphthalmia

(C) Hyperbilirubinemia, jaundice, and failure to thrive.

(D) Microcephaly, short philtrum, and prenatal growth Retardation


28. Which blood gas analyses are most indicative of respiratory acidosis?

(A) pH = 7.22, PC02 = 55 mm Hg, HCO3 = 30 mEq/L

(B) pH = 7.28, PC02 = 45 mm Hg, HCO3 = 15 mEq/L

(C) pH = 7.34, PCO2 = 35 mm Hg, HCO3 = 25 mEq/L

(D) pH = 7.40, PC02 = 25 mm Hg, HCO3 = 30 mEq/L


29. After receiving an immunization for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, a patient develops swelling and tenderness at the injection site, a low-grade fever, and malaise. The pediatric nurse informs the patient's parents that:

(A) the reaction is severe enough that they should bring the patient to an emergency department.

(B) they should delay future immunizations until the patient sees an allergist

(C) this is a mild reaction, and teaches them how to manage it.

(D) this is an appropriate reaction, and instructs them to do nothing.



30. A pediatric nurse is caring for a male patient who has undergone a hydrocele surgery. While assessing the patient, the nurse notices that the scrotum is swollen and discoloured(D) These findings are:

(A) Abnormal, and indicate the need for a cool compress

Abnormal, and indicate the presence of haemorrhaging

C. Normal, and indicate no need for intervention.

(D) Normal, and indicate the need for a position change.


31. In preparing a preschool-age patient for an injection, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to:

(A) allow the patient to administer an injection to a doll.

(B) coordinate the patient watching a peer receive an injection.

(C) have the parents explain the process to the patient.

(D) suggest diversionary activities like singing


32. A pediatric nurse, who is caring for a 12-year-old patient with septic shock, perceives a potential complication of fluid resuscitation upon noting:

(A) a heart rate of 50 beats/min.

(B) a temperature of 102°F (38.8°C).

(C) complaints of leg pain

(D) rales and rhonchi by auscultation


33. A four-year-old boy, whose family follows a strict vegetarian (vegan) diet, undergoes a pre school physical examination. The child is likely to have deficiency of:

(A) Niacin (B) Thiamine (C) Vitamin B6. (D) Vitamin B12


34. A pediatric nurse is caring for a patient who received chemotherapy 10 days ago. Which laboratory value requires the nurse's intervention?

(A) A blood urea nitrogen level of 10 mg/dL.

(B) A haemoglobin of 8.6 g/dL

(C) A platelet count of 18 x 10°/uL.

(D) A serum glucose of 110 mg/dL.


35. Three-Tier system of Health care delivery in rural areas in India is based on the recommendations of:

(A) Bhore Committee (B) Chadah Committee (C) Srivastava Committee (D) Mudalair Committee


36. Community health centre covers a population of:

(A) 10,000 to 20,000 (B) 30,000 to 50,000 (C) 50,000 to 80,000 (D) 80,000 to 120,000


37. During anesthesia, O2 is given to prevent:

(A) Pain (B) Hypoxia (C) Hypercapnia (D) Hypotension


38. In an infant, anesthesia is given by using:

(A) Open mask ventilation (B) Non-breathing circuit (C) Magill"s system (D) Ayre's T. piece


39. An anesthetist orders an attendant to bring oxygen cylinder. The attendant will pick which cylinder:

(A) Black cylinder with white shoulder

(B) P white cylinder with Black shoulder

(C) Black cylinder with Grey shoulder

(D) Grey cylinder with white shoulder


40. Laryngeal Airway mask (LMA) is used for:

(A) Maintenance of the airway (B) Facilitating laryngeal surgery (CA Prevention of aspiration (D) Removing oral secretion


41. Pulse oximetry is used for monitoring:

(A) Oxygen content of blood (B) Oxygen saturation of blood (C) Partial pressure of oxygen (D) All of the above


42. Polydioxanone (PDS) suture is absorbed within:

(A) 7 days (B) 21 days (C) 90 days (D) 180 days

43.Which of the following is not absorbable suture:

(A) Catgut (B) Polyamide (C) Polyglactin (D) Polyester


44. "Atropine" as preanesthesia has all effects except:

(A) Decrease secretion (B) Bronchoconstriction (C) Prevent bradycardia (D) Prevent hypotension


45. "d-TC” is a:

(A) Centrally acting agent (B) Ganglionic blocker (C) Depolarizing agent (D) Competitive neuromuscular blocker


46. Which of the following anesthetic is safe in heart failure (Cardio-stable anesthetic):

(A) Etomidate (B) Propofol (C) Thiopentone (D) Ketamine


47. A female pelvis differs from male pelvis by all except:

(A) Obtuse subpubic angle (B) Broad greater sciatic foramen (C) Broad lesser sciatic foramen (D) Prominent muscle marking


48. Jet black tongue is seen in poisoning of:

(A) Cocaine (B) Opium (C) Arsenice (D) Lead


49. CAGE test is used in:

(A) Alcohol poisoning (B) Opiate poisoning (C) Datura Poisoning (D) Cannabis Poisoning


50. Overdose of narcotics causes all the following except:

(A) Dilated pupil (B) Hypotension (C) Depressed reflexes (D) Comas


51. Confabulation is defect of:

(A) Memory (B) Intelligence (C) Attention (D) Concentration


52. Rorschach test measures:

(A) Intelligence (B) Creativity (C) Personality (D) Neuraticism


53. Bruxism is:

(A) Walking during sleep (B) Nocturnal enuresis (C) Grinding of teeth during sleep (D) Sleep apnoea


54. 20 years old girl Neelu enjoys wearing male clothes, wearing male clothes gives her feeling of more confidence and after these episodes she is an absolutely normal girl. The likely diagnosis is:

(A) Trans sexualism (B) Fetishism (C) Dual role transvestism (D) Fetishistic transvestism


55. A young lady is present with H/O repeated episode of over eating followed by purging using laxatives she probably suffering from:

(A) Bulimia nervosa (B) Schizophrenias (C) Anorexia nervosa (D) Benign eating disorders


56. A person is missing away from home and wandering with loss of recent memory with depersonalization. The diagnosis is:

(A) Dissociative fugue (B) Dissociative amnesia (C) Dissociative personality (D) Any of the above.


57. All are features of anxiety neurosis expect:

(A) Dryness of mouth (B) Sweating (C) Palpitation (D) Abnormal gait



A 30 years old lady with sudden onset breathlessness, anxiety, palpitation & feeling of impending doom. Physical examination is normal. What is the diagnosis:

(A) Panic attack (B) Anxiety disorder (C) conversion disorder (D) Acute psychosiss


59. Person preoccupied by worries about ill health is:

(A) Hypochondriac (B) Maniac (C) Depressed (D) Delirium


60. A 09 years old child disturbs other people, is destructive, interferes when two people are talking, does not follow instructions and cannot wait for his turn while playing a game. He is likely to be suffering from:

(A) Emotional disorder (B) Behavioral Problems (C) No disorder (D) Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder


61. Sigmund Freud is associated with which of the following:

(A) Group Psychotherapy (B) Psychoanalysis (C) Sociogram (D) Cognitive Behavior Therapy


62. Ross classified five stages of which of the following:

(A) Schizophrenia (B) Delusion (C) Death (D) None


63. A 3 years old girl has normal developmental milestones with delay in speech. She has difficulty in concentration, communication and relating to others and does not make friends but plays with herself. Likely diagnosis is:

(A) ADHD. (B) Autism. (C) Specific learning disorder. (D) Mental retardation.


64. IQ of 70-75 denotes:

(A) Borderline Mental Retardation (B) Moderate Mental Retardation (C) Severe Mental Retardation (D) Normal intelligence


65. WHO recommended ORS formula

contains all except:

(A) Trisodium citrate dihydrate (B) Glucose, Anhydrous (C) Potassium chloride (D) Calcium chloride



Haemaccel contains:

(A) Degraded gelatin, Sodium chloride, potassium chloride and calcium chloride)

(B) Albumin, Sodium chloride, potassium chloride and Dextran

(C) Degraded gelatin, Sodium chloride, potassium chloride and Glucose

(D Albumin, Sodium chloride, potassium chloride and calcium chloride


67. Content of Na+ in Ringer lactate is:

(A) 154 meq/L (B) 12 meq/L (C) 130 meq/L (D) 144 meq/L


68. An adult whose both limbs are charred along with genitalia has burn

(A) 18% (B) 19%

C. 30% (D) 37%


69. Which of the following regarding CVS changes in pregnancy is false:

(A) Blood volume increases (B) Heart rate increases (C) Cardiac output increases (D) Blood viscosity increases


70. In early pregnancy HCG in plasma doubles every:

(A) 02 days (B) 30 days (C) 15 days (D) Only gradual rise


71. Fetus is called embryo until

(A) 06 weeks (B) 08 weeks (C) 10 weeks (D) 12 weeks


72. Triple toxoid vaccine gives protection against

(A) Diphtheria, tetanus and rabies

(B) Tetanus, whooping cough, Tuberculosis

(C) Whooping cough, tetanus and Diphtheria

(D) Whooping cough, cancer and T.B.


73. Match the following with their r modes of action A to D:

1. GENTAMYCIN (A) binds to tubulin, disrupting microtubul e function and inhibiting mitosis.

2.CEPHALOSPORINS (B) disrupt the synthesis of the peptidogly can layer forming the bacterial cell wall.

3. CIPROFLOXACIN (C) inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by binding to 305 ribosomes.

4. GRISEOFULVIN (D) Inhibiting enzymes involved in bacterial DNA Synthesis

(A) 1.C, 2.B, 3.D, 4.A (B) 1.B, 2.C, 3.D, 4.A (C) 1.A, 3.B, 3.D, 4.C (D) 1.B, 2.A, 3.D, 4.C


74. In 'C Reactive Protein', the letter 'C' is short for?

(A) Cellular (B) Cytoplasmic (C) Capsular polysaccharide of pneumococcus (D) Concanavalin A


75. Most common fungal infection in immunosuppressed individuals is?

(A) Histoplasmosis (B) Epidermophyton (C) Candidiasis (D) Cryptococcosis


76. Which is the correct procedure for

collecting a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity testing?

(A) Have the patient place the specimen in a container and enclose the container in a plastic bag.

(B) Have the patient expectorate the sputum while the nurse holds the container.

(C) Have the patient expectorate the sputum into a sterile container.

(D) Offer the patient an antiseptic mouthwash just before he expectorate the sputum.


77. The doctor advises dextrose 5% in water, 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours. The I.V. tubing delivers 15 drops per milliliter. The nurse in charge should run the I.V. infusion at a rate of:

(A) 15 drop per minute (B) 21 drop per minute (C) 32 drop per minute (D) 125 drop per minute


78. The nurse in charge measures a patient's temperature at 102 degrees F. What is the equivalent Centigrade temperature?

(A) 39.8 degree C (B) 47.0 degree C (C) 38.9 degree C (D) 40.1 degree C


79. A nurse is preparing to administer a

cleansing enema to an adult client in preparation for a diagnostic procedure. Which of the following are appropriate steps for the nurse to take?

1. Warm the enema solution prior to installation.

2. Position the client on the left side with the right leg flexed forward.

3. Lubricate the rectal tube or nozzle.

4. Slowly insert the rectal tube about 2 inches. Hang the enema container 24 inches above the patient's anus.

(A) All are correct (B) 1,2,3 are correct (C) 2, 3, 5 are correct (D) 1, 2, 4, 5 are correct


80. "Z track technique is used in

(A) Intravenous injection (B) Intramuscular injection (C) Intrathecal injection (D) Subcutaneous Injection


81. The most preferred intramuscular injection site for children and infant is

(A) Deltiod site (B) Dorsogluteal site (C) Ventro gluteal site (D) Vastus lateralis site


82. stool, Term “malena” means

(A) Dark coloured containing blood (B) Pus in the urine (C) Painful micturition (D) Sugar in the urine


83 Collapsing pulse is also known as.......

(A) Bounding pulse (B) Water-hammer pulse (C) Pulse-alternos (D) Bigeminal pulse


84. Every subordinate should receive orders from and be accountable to only one superior i s called

(A) Unity of direction. (B) Unity of command. (C) Centralization. (D) Scalar chain.


85. The chain of command from the highest authority to the lowest level in the organization is called (A) leadership (B) Unity of command. (C) Planning (D) Scalar chain.


86. The first and foremost function of management is

(A) planning. (B) organizing. (C) controlling. (D) coordination.


87. An obligation to perform certain functions and achieve certain results is called: (A) Responsibility. (B) Decentralisation. (C) Centralisation. (D) Delegation.


88. Plan that establishes a required method of handling future activities is called

(A) rules. (B) procedures. (C) policy. (D) methods.


89. Which theory assumes that people are naturally lazy and will avoid work and responsibilities if possible?

(A) Theory X (B) Theory Y (C) Theory z (D) None of the above


90. This function of Management related to placing the right person at the right job is called

(A) Organising (B) Staffing (C) Planning (D) Controlling


91. The process of influencing the behavior of people making them strive voluntarily towards achievement of goals, is called:

(A) Motivation (B) Communication (C) Leadership (D) Directing


92. Informal communication is also called:

(A) Wheel communication (B) Grapevine Verbal (D) Visual



Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?

(A) Searching sources of information to locate problem.

(B) Survey of related literature

(C) Identification of problem

(D) Searching for solutions to the problem


94. A research paper, is a brief report of research work based on:

(A) Primary Data only (B) Secondary Data only (C) Both Primary and Secondary Data (D) None of the above


95. Conference proceedings are considered as................. documents.

(A) Conventional (B) Primary Secondary (D) Tertiary


96. Questionnaire is a:

(A) Research method (B) Measurement technique (C) Tool for data collection (D) Data analysis technique


97. A periodical evaluation employee is done through..

(A) Job rotation (B) Performance appraisal (C) Refresher course (D) Work guide


98. "Controlled Group” is a term used in:

(A) Survey research (B) Historical research (C) Experimental research (D) Descriptive research


99. Which of the following is not true about e journals?

(A) They are distributed through digital methods

(B) They also have editors or editorial boards

(C) They are publications of serial nature

(D) They are always free of cost


100. The transmission of receiver's reaction back to the sender is known as:

(A) Consideration (B) Feedback (C) Suggestion (D) Complaint


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