M.sc nursing entrance papers pdf / RAK M.Sc Nursing Entrance Paper (2017)

 RAK M.Sc Nursing Entrance Paper (2017)

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nursing officer app download link - https://edumartin.page.link/wWac RAK M.Sc Nursing Entrance Paper (2017)

Q.1 A nurse is teaching a new haemodialysis client. Haemodialysis is successful in the treatment of ESRD because it?

(a) Mimics renal function

(b) Restores renal endocrine function

(c) Restores urinary ability

(d) Improves immune function

Answer- A

Q. 2 a nurse determines percentage of the body burnt and Using Rule of Nine, a client with both arms burnt ?

(a) 9%

(b) 36%

(c) 18%

(d) 1%

Answer- C

Q.3 Which intervention is appropriate for a client with skeletal traction ?

(a) Pin Care

(b) Prone positioning

(c) Intermittent weights.

(d) 5 lb weight limit

Answer- A

Q. 4 A client endoscopy of the upper GI tract. a nursing care plan should include which of following?

(a) Administering analgesics for pain

(b) Withholding foods until a gag reflex is present

(c) Positioning client on right side

(d) Observing the client for rectal bleeding

Answer- B

Q.5 Nursing care for a client with an arteriovenous (AV) fistula aimed at maintaining patency includes?

(a) Taking B.P. in the affected area

(b) Applying heat to maintain circulation

(c) Palpating for a bruit

(d) Keeping the arm free of constriction

Answer- D

Q. 6 the nurse should foot drop prevent in a client with Buck's traction,?

(a) Place pillows under the client's heels

(b) Tuck the sheets into the foot of the bed

(c) Teach the client isometric exercises

(d) Ensure proper body positioning

Answer- D

Q. 7 A comatose client is at risk for the development of pressure ulcers, therefore the nurse should include which of the following activities in the plan of care?

(a) Massage red areas bony prominence regularly

(b) Wash skin soap and water frequently

(c) Use a donut - shaped cushion on the sacral region

(d) Establish an individualized turing schedule

Answer- D

Q.8 Which of the following arterial blood gas values is consistent with metabolic acidosis?

(a) PH 7.35

(b) CO2, 48 mm of Hg

(c) Bicarbonate 16%

(d) PaO2 90%

Answer- C

Q. 9 After 48 hours, successful fluid resuscitation of a burn victim can be evaluated by?

(a) weight

(b) Urine output

(c) Urine specific gravity

(d) Peripheral perfusion

Answer- B

Q. 10 An end-stage AIDS client required suctioning when performing this task, is the nurse correct to wear?

(a) A mask and eye protection

(b) Sterile gloves and eye protection

(C) A mask and sterile gloves

(d) A mask,sterile gloves and eye protection

Answer- D

Q. 11 A nurse is caring for a patient who has been taking diuretics on long term . patient fluid volume deficit is suspected. Which assessment nurse finding would be noted in a patient with this condition ?

(a) Rales

(b) BP

(c) Hematocrit

(d) CVP

Answer- D

Q. 12 The most common cause of retinal detachment is?

(a) Diabetes Mellitus

(b) Trauma

(c) Degenerative changes in the retina and vitreous

(d) Brain tumours

Answer- A

Q. 13 the nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review client's medical records, nurse determines which client is at risk for fluid volume excess?

(a) The client with ileostomy

(b) The client with renal failure

(c) The client on diuretics

(d) The client of GI. Suctioning

Answer- B

Q. 14 A nurse plans to care for COPD patient. Knowing that the patient is most likely to experience which type of acid-base balance?

(a) Respiratory acidosis

(b) Respiratory alkalosis

(c) Metabolic acidosis

(d) Metabolic alkalosis

Answer- A

Q. 15 A nurse is preparing to care for a client with a K deficit. The nurse reviews the client's record and determines that the client is at risk for developing the K deficit. because the client?

(a) Is on K sparing diuretics

(b) Is on nasogastric suction

(c) Has history of renal disease

(d) Has history of addison's disease

Answer- B

Q. 16 A nurse is changing the central line dressing of a client receiving TPN. The notes that the catheter insertion site appears reddened. next nurse assesses which of following?

(a) Tightness of tubing connections

(b) Clients temperature

(C) Expiration date on the bag

(d) Time of the last dressing change

Answer- B

Q. 17 nurse is preparing to hand fat emulsion. nurse notes fat globules are visible at top of solution. nurse takes which of following actions?

(a) Runs the bottle of solution under warm water

(b) Roll the bottle of solution gently

(c) Shakes the bottle of solution vigorously

(d) Obtains a different bottle of solution

Answer- D

Q. 18 A client has just undergone insertion of a Central Venous Catheter at the bedside. A nurse would be sure to check the results of which of the following before increasing the flow rate of the I/V solution attached to the line?

(a) Serum Electrolytes

(b) Serum Osmolarity

(c) Portable Chest X-ray

(d) Intake-Output Chart

Answer- C

Q.19 A nurse assist physician removal of a chest tube. nurse most appropriately instructs the client ?

(a) Stay very still

(b) Inhale and exhale quickly

(c) Exhale as the tube is pulled out

(d) Perform Valsalva Maneuver

Answer- D

Q. 20 A client with cancer is receiving Chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia. the nurse identifies which intervention highest priority nursing care plan?

(a) Ambulation three times daily

(b) Monitoring temperature

(c) Monitoring the platelet count

(d) Monitoring for pathological fractures

Answer- C

Q.21 Collaborative health care team member should nurse refer client in late stages of myasthenia gravis?

(a) Occupational therapist

(b) Recreational therapist

(c) Vocational therapist

(d) Speech therapist

Answer- D

Q. 22 client diagnosed guillain - Barre Syndrome nurse Which assessment data ?

(a) memory changes and An exaggerated startle reflex

(b) Cogwheel rigidity and inability to initiative voluntary movement

(C) unilateral Sudden severe facial pain and inability chew

(d) Progressive ascending paralysis lower extremities or numbness

Answer- D

Q. 23 a clinic is diagnosed otitis media. Which intervention clinic nurse include in discharge teaching?

(a) Instruct client not to take any over counter pain medication

(b) Encourage client apply cold packs affected ear

(c) Tell client to call the HCP if an abrupt relief of ear pain occurs

(d) Wear a protective earplug is the affected ear.

Answer- C

Q. 24 client is diagnosed Glaucoma. Which symptom would nurse expect?

(a) Halos around lights

(b) Floating spots in the vision

(c) A yellow haze around everything

(d) A curtain coming across vision

Answer- A

Q. 25 Which referral most important for client with permanent hearing loss?

(a) Aural rehabilitation

(b) Speech therapist

(c) Social worker

(d) Vocational rehabilitation

Answer- A

Q. 26 a client unresponsive on floor Which action should nurse implement first?

(a) Check the client for breathing

(b) Assess carotid artery for a pulse

(c) Shake client and shout

(d) Call a code via bathroom call light

Answer- C

Q. 27 The nurse is caring for a client who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

(a) Call a code immediately

(b) Assess the pulse of a client

(c) Begin chest compressions

(d) Continue to monitor the client

Answer- C

Q. 28 Which laboratory data confirm the diagnosis of Congestive heart failure?

(a) Chest X-ray

(b) Liver function tests

(c) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

(d) Beta-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

Answer- D

Q. 29 What is the priority problem in the client diagnosed with Congestive heart failure?

(a) Fluid volume overload

(b) Decreased Cardiac output

(c) Activity intolerance

(d) Knowledge deficit

Answer- B

Q. 30 Which type of precautions should the nurse implement for the client diagnosed with aseptic meningitis?

(a) Standard precautions

(b) Airborne precautions

(c) Contact precautions

(d) Droplet precautions

Answer- C

Q. 31 patient diagnosed atrial fibrillation has experienced a transient ischaemic attack. Which medication nurse anticipate being ordered for client on discharge?

(a) An oral anticoagulant medication

(b) A beta-blocker medication

(c) An anti-hyperuricemic medication

(d) A thrombolytic medication

Answer- A

Q. 32 A patient diagnosed subarachnoid hemorrhage has undergone a craniotomy repair of ruptured aneurysm. Which intervention nurse implement intensive care?

(a) Administer a Stool Softener BID

(b) Encourage the client to cough hourly

(c) Monitor neurological status every shift

(d) Maintain dopamine drip to keep BP at 160/90

Answer- A

Q. 33 Which medication should the nurse expect the health care provider to order for a client diagnosed with arterial occlusive disease?

(a) An anticoagulant medication

(b) An antihypertensive medication

(c) An antiplatelet medication

(d) A muscle relaxant

Answer- C

Q. 34 nurse is caring a client diagnosed COPD. Which data would warrant immediate intervention by nurse?

(a) The client's pulse oximeter reading is 92%

(b) client's arterial blood gas level is 7.4

(c) the client has SOB when walking to the bathroom

(d) The client's sputum is rusty coloured

Answer- D

Q. 35 Which type of precaution should the nurse implement to protect from being exposed to any of the hepatitis viruses?

(a) Airborne precautions

(b) Standard precautions

(c) Droplet precautions

(d) Exposure precautions

Answer- B

Q. 36 Which type of patient assignment needs specific personnel?

(a) Patient method

(b) Functional method

(c) Toam method

(d) None of the above

Answer- B

Q.37 Which of the following is the process by which the manager assigns specific duties?

(a) Coordination

(b) Communication

(c) Delegation

(d) Supervision

Answer- C

Q. 38 Functional nursing is a method of providing?

(a) Equipment care

(b) Care of records

(c) Case management

(d) Patient Care

Answer- D

Q. 39 Which of the following is the most managerial issue in an emergency case?

(a) Security

(b) Inadequate staff

(c) Triage

(d) Inadequate supply

Answer- A

Q. 40 Supervisors have several roles to play. Which of the following is not roles a supervisor plays?

(a) Coach to employes

(b) authoritative

(c) Mentor to employees

(d) Informing employees regarding organizational policies

Answer- B

Q. 41 What could be a factor that hinders the smooth running of the team process?

(a) An effective team leader

(b) Team members having problems

(c) Objectives that are easily achievable

(d) Everyone being focused on the project

Answer- B

Q. 42 The following methods can be used to identify training needs except?

(a) Professional standards

(b) Job analyses

(c) Job description

(d) Everyone being focused on the project

Answer- C

Q. 43 Which of the following data indicates whether high quality care is being maintained?

(a) Audit

(b) Quality indicators

(c) Quality assurances

(d) Key indicators

Answer- B

Q. 44 The type of hospital patient care assignment which requires giving complete nursing care to a specific number and category of patients during the scheduled duty hours?

(a) Functional assignment

(b) Individual Care assignment

(c) Team Nursing

(d) Organizational nursing

Answer- B

Q. 45 The type of nursing care assignment is best suited in an intensive Care Unit?

(a) Case method

(b) Functional method

(c) Primary care method

(d) Team method

Answer- C

Q. 46 What is the normal colour of the amniotic fluid when the bag of waters ruptures?

(a) As like water

(b) Bluish

(c) Brownish

(d) Yellowish

Answer- A

Q. 47 Which of the following measures would the nurse include in the teaching plan about the method to prevent breast engorgement in the postpartum period?

(a) Breast feeding neonate at frequent intervals

(b) Decreasing fluid intake for first 24 - 48 hours

(c) Feeding neonate a maximum 5 minutes per side on first day

(d) Wearing a supportive brassiere with nipple shields

Answer- A

Q. 48 Which of the following can lead to greenish discoloration of the amniotic fluid?

(a) Lanugo

(b) Hydramnios

(c) Vernix

(d) Meconium

Answer- D

Q. 49 To promote comfort during Labour Nurse advises a lady to assume certain positions and avoid others. Which of the flowing position causes hypotension and fetal hypoxia?

(a) Lateral position

(b) Squatting position

(c) Supine position

(d) Standing position

Answer- C

Q. 50 Postpartum hemorrhage is loss of blood which is more than?

(a) 800 ml

(b) 100 ml

(c) 500 ml

(d) 900 ml

Answer- C

Q. 51 In a fetal blood vessel, where is the oxygen content highest?

(a) Umbilical Artery

(b) Ductus Venosus

(c) Ductus Arteriosus

(d) Pulmonary Artery

Answer- B

Q. 52 According to WHO, when should the mother start breast feeding her infant?

(a) Within 30 minutes birth

(b) Within 18 hours after birth

(c) After the infant's condition stabilizes

(d) Within a day after birth

Answer- A

Q. 53 An important landmark of the pelvis that Determines the distance of the patient's head known as?

(a) Ischial spines

(b) Ischial tuberosity

(c) Linea terminalis

(d) Sacrum

Answer- A

Q. 54 Monitoring contractions is very important during labour. To monitor uterine contractions what should nurse do?

(a) Instruct the client take note of the duration of her contraction

(b) Observe for the clients facial expression to know that the contractions has started or stopped

(c) Offer ice chips to the woman

(d) Spread fingers lightly over fundus to monitor contraction

Answer- D

Q. 55 Nurse Rashmi is aware that the labour is divided into how many stages?

(a) Two

(b) Three

(c) Four

(d) Five

Answer- C

Q. 56 The peak point of a uterine contraction is called the?

(a) Acceleration

(b) Axion

(c) Deceleration

(d) Acme

Answer- D

Q.57 The indicator of forceps delivery

(a) Delay in first stage due to hypotonic uterine contracom

(b) Delay in first stage labour due to hypertonic uterine contraction

(c) Delay in second stage to hypotenuse uterine contract

(d) Delay in cond stage due to hypertonic uterine contraction

Answer- C

Q.58 In which condition, the umbilical cord is attached to the marm of placenta?

(a) Battledore placenta

(b) Circumvallate plaats

(c) Placenta membranacea

(d) Velamentous plana

Answer- A

Q.59 What is the positives sign of pregnancy

(a) Frequency of urination

(b) Vomiting and balanche

(c) Braxton hicks contraction

(d) Peal outline by wwwrahy

Answer- D

Q.60 During a regular prenatal visit, a pregnant women reports heartburn. To minimize discomfort, nurse should include which suggestion plan of care?

(a) Drink more citrus juice

(b) Eat small frequent meals

(c) Limit fluid intake sharply

(d) Take sodium bicarbonate

Answer- B

Q. 61 When is the best time to achieve pregnancy?

(a) Midway between 7 to 8th day ovulation

(b) Immediately after starting of menses

(c) 14 days after beginning of next period

(d) 14 days before the rest period is expected

Answer- D

Q. 62 Which of the following factors might result in a decreased supply of breast milk in a Postpartum mother?

(a) Supplemental feeding with formula

(b) Maternal dict high in vitamin C

(c) An alcoholic drink

(d) Frequent feeding

Answer- A

Q. 63 Rani is hospitalized for treatment of severe preeclampsia. Which represents an unusual finding for this condition?

(a) Generalised edema

(b) Proteinuria 4+

(c) Blood Pressure of 160/110

(d) Convulsions

Answer- D

Q. 64 Seven weeks after the conception the growing structure inside a uterus is now called?

(a) Zygote

(b) Embryo

(c) Fetus

(d) Neonate

Answer- B

Q. 65 True labor is characterized by?

(a) Effacement and dilatation of cervix

(b) Painful uterine contraction

(c) supra public discomfort at regular interval

(d) All of the above

Answer- D

Q. 66 Which of the following fetal positions is most favorable for birth?

(a) Verfex

(b) Oblique Lic

(c) Frank breech presentation

(d) Posterior position of the head

Answer- A

Q. 67 Which of the following conditions is common to pregnant clients in the 2n trimester of Pregnancy?

(a) Breast Abscess

(b) Metabolic acidosis

(c) Physiologic anemia

(d) Respiratory alkalosis

Answer- C

Q.68 Neonates born women infected with hepatitis B should undergo which treatment?

(a) Hepatitis B vaccine at birth & 1 month

(b) Hepatitis B immune globulin at birth. no hepatitis vaccino

(c) Hepatitis B immune globulin within 48 hrs of birth & hepatitis B vaccine at 1 month

(d) Hepatitis B immune globulin within 12 hrs of birth and hepatitis B vaccine at birth, 1 month & 6 months

Answer- D

Q. 69 Oxytocin causes all except?

(a) Myoepithelial cell contraction

(b) Lactogenesis

(c) Contraction of uterine muscles
(d) Milk ejection

Answer- B

Q. 70 A nurse caring for 16 year old pregnant girl. she taking an iron supplement. What should she drink to increase absorption of iron?

(a) A cup of hot tea

(b) A glass of milk

(c) A glass of orange juice

(d) A liquid antacid

Answer- C

Q. 71 The permanent cessation of menstruation is?

(a) Amenorrhea

(b) Menopause

(c) Oligomenorrhea

(d) Hypomenorrhea

Answer- B

Q. 72 In a lady having a regular 28 day regular menstrual cycle, what is the "safe period”?

(a) Initial 28 days

(b) Later 14 days

(c) First and last seven days

(d) First seven days

Answer- C

Q. 73 Which of the following ideal contraceptive for heart disease patient?

(a) IUCD

(b) Depo-Provera

(c) E-pill

(d) Oral contraceptive pills

Answer- C

Q. 74 Aspermia is the term used to describe?

(a) Decrease of semen

(b) Increase of semen

(C) Absence of sperm

(d) Occurrence of abnormal sperm

Answer- C

Q. 75 Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?

(a) Goodell sign

(b) Nausea and vomiting

(c) Cervical effacement

(d) Positive Serum pregnancy test

Answer- B

Q. 76 fetal heart rate can auscultated a fetoscope as early as following weeks?

(a) 15 weeks gestation

(b) 30 weeks gestation

(c) 28 weeks gestation

(d) 20 weeks gestation

Answer- D

Q. 77 Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks gestation when the date of LMP is unknown?

(a) Uterus in the pelvis

(b) Uterus at the xiphoid

(c) Uterus in the abdomen

(d) Uterus at the umbilicus

Answer- A

Q. 78 Nurse's main priority in assessment while caring for the client having spontaneous abortion?

(a) IUD

(b) Hemorrhage

(c) Eclampsia

(d) Subinvolution

Answer- B

Q..79 Immunoglobulin present in breast milk in?

(a) la A

(b) ID

(c) IR

(d) IgM

Answer- A

Q. 80 Which assessment finding would be the most unlikely risk factor for Respiratory Distress Syndrome?

(a) Second born of twins

(b) Neonate born at 36 weeks

(c) neonate of diabetic mother

(d) Chronic maternal HTN

Answer- D

Q.81 A Characteristic of infants and young children who have experienced maternal deprivation is?

(a) Extremer active

(b) Proneness of illness

(c) Responsiveness to stimuli

(d) Tendency toward overeating

Answer- B

Q.82 Postoperatively, to help relieve the anxiety of a young school age child the nurse should?

(a) Allow the child time to take aboud feeling

(b) Tell story about child with similar surgery

(c) Ask mother to room with child for a few days

(d) Provide child with scissors , tape, bandages and a doll

Answer- D

Q.83 As a child with nephrosis gets older and has repeated attacks, it is most important for the nurse to help the child develop?

(a) A positive body image

(b) The ability to test urine

(c) Fine muscle coordination

(d) Acceptance of possible sterility

Answer- A

Q.84 The most critical factor in the immediate care of an infant repair of cleft lip would be to?

(a) Prevention of vomiting

(b) Maintenance of a patient airway

(c) Administration of parenteral fluid

(d) Administration of drugs to reduce oral secretions

Answer- B

Q. 85 A 6 year old child is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. immediate priority child nursing care ?

(a) Rest

(b) Nutrition

(c) Exercise

(d) Elimination

Answer- A

Q. 86 The most important nursing intervention for a 3 year old child with a diagnosis of nephrosis is?

(a) Encouraging fluids

(b) Regulating the diet

(c) Preventing infection

(d) Maintaining bed rest

Answer- C

Q. 87 If a child develops cyanosis early during a tonic-clonic seizure. It is most appropriate for the nurse to?

(a) Insert an oral airway

(b) Administer oxygen by mask

(c) Usc a padded tongue blade

(d) Observe without intervening

Answer- D

Q. 88 One of the major behavioral characteristics of children with attention deficit disorders is their?

(a) Overreaction to stimuli

(b) Continued use of rituals

(c) Retarded speech development

(d) Inability to use abstract thoughts

Answer- A

Q. 89 The most serious complication of meningitis in young children is?

(a) Epilepsy

(b) Blindness

(c) Peripheral circulatory collapse

(d) Communicating hydrocephalus

Answer- A

Q. 90 When elevating the head of an infant in a spica cost, the nurse should be aware that it is important to?

(a) Limit this position to 1 hour at a maximum

(b) Place folded diapers at the edge of the cost

(c) Use at least two pillows under the shoulders

(d) Raise the entire mattress and spring at the head of the bed

Answer- D

Q. 91 When vomiting is uncontrolled in an infant, the Nurse should observe for sign of

(a) Tetany

(b) Acidosis

(c) Alkalosis

(d) Hyperactivity

Answer- C

Q. 92 An 18 months old is to receive 1000 ml. 5% dextrose and normal saline I.V. in 24 Hours. drop factor minidroper 60 gtt/ml. The nurse should regulate the I/V to run at?

(a) 21 drops per minute

(b) 34 drops per minute

(C) 38 drops per minute

(d) 42 drops per minute

Answer- D

Q. 93 A Common finding in most children with Cardiac anomalies is?

(a) Mental retardation

(b) Delayed physical growth

(c) Cyanosis and clubbing of fingertips

(d) A family history of Cardiac anomalies

Answer- B

Q. 94 A child undergoes heart surgery to repair the defects associated with Tetralogy of Fallot. Post operatively it is essential that nurses prevent?

(a) Crying

(b) Coughing

(c) Constipation

(d) Unnecessary movement

Answer- C

Q. 95 A child is to receive a blood transfusion. If an allergic reaction to the blood occurs, the nurse's first intervention should be to?

(a) Call the physician

(b) Slow the flow rate

(c) Stop the blood immediately

(d) Relieve symptoms with ordered antihistamine

Answer- C

Q. 96 The most prevalent nutritional disorder among young children is iron deficiency anaemia. A major reason for young children ?

(a) Blood disorder

(b) Overfeeding of milk

(c) Lack of adequate iron reserves from mother

(d) Introduction of solids early for proper absorption

Answer- C

Q. 97 To continue bleeding in a child with hemophilia - A, the nurse would expect to give?

(a) Albumin

(b) Fresh frozen plasma

(c) Factor VIII concentrate

(d) Factor II, VII, IX, X complex

Answer- C

Q.98 With the diagnosis of acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALC) the nurse should consider it unnecessary to observe?

(a) Marked fatigue, pallor

(b) Multiple bruises, petechiae

(c) Enlarged lymph nodes, spleen, liver

(d) Marked jaundice and generalized oedema

Answer- D

Q.99 When administering a parenteral iron preparation to the child, the nurse should?

(a) Apply ice pack to the site after the injection

(b) Rotate injection among the four extremities

(c) Firmly massage site after withdrawal needle

(d) Change needle after drawing drug in syringe

Answer- B

Q. 100 After administration of mebendazole (vermox) to a 4 year old child for pinworms, the nurse should observe the child for?

(a) Convulsions

(b) Hypertension

(c) Intestinal bleeding

(d) Worms in the stool

Answer- D

Q. 101 The primary reason for using prednisone in the treatment of acute leukemia in children is that is able to?

(a) Decrease inflammation

(b) Reduce irradiation edema

(c) Suppress mitosis in lymphocytes

(d) Increase appetite and sense of wellbeing

Answer- A

Q. 102 An essential nursing action when caring for the small child with severe diarrhea is to?

(a) Force fluid orally

(b) Take daily weight

(c) Replace lost calories

(d) Keep body temperature below 100°F (37.8 °C)

Answer- B

Q. 103 Chickenpox can sometimes be fatal to children who are receiving it?

(a) Insulin

(b) Steroids

(c) Antibiotics

(d) Anticonvulsants

Answer- B

Q. 104 A 10 year old child is diagnosed lymphocytic thyroiditis. nurse should explain parents and child condition ?

(a) Chronic

(b) Inherited

(C) Difficult to treat

(d) Probably temporary

Answer- D

Q. 105 A 9 year old has fractured femur and a full leg cast has been applied. Should the nurse immediately notify the physician if assessment demonstrates?

(a) A pedal Pulse of 90

(b) An increased urinary output

(c) An inability to move the toes

(d) A cast that is still damp and warm after 4 hours

Answer- C

Q. 106 A 6 year old girl begins thumb sucking after surgery. This was not the child's behavior preoperatively. The nurse should?

(a) Accept the thumb sucking

(b) distract her by playing with crackers

(c) Report this behavior to the physician

(d) Tell her thumb sucking cause buck teeth

Answer- A

Q.107 A 10 month old is brought to the emergency room for a head injury after falling down the stairs. An immediate CT scan is ordered. In preparing a 10 month old for a CT scan the nurse should?

(a) Shave the infants head

(b) Administer prescribed sedative

(C) Start the prescribed intravenous infusion

(d) Give the infant an explanation of the procedure .

Answer- C

Q.108 To help parents cope with the behaviour of young school aged children, the nurse suggests that it could help if they would?

(a) Avoid asking specific questions

(b) Write a list of expectations to avoid confusion

(c) Be consistent or firm about established rules

(d) Allow child set up his or her own routines

Answer- C

Q. 109 In relation to obtaining an informed consent from an adolescent, nurse should aware that adolescent?

(a) Does not have legal capacity to give consent

(b) Is not able make an acceptable and intelligent choice

(c) Is able give voluntary consent when parents are not available

(d) Will most likely unable to choose between alternative when asked consent

Answer- A

Q. 110 After closure of a newborn's meningomyelocele it is essential that the nursing care include?

(a) Strict limitation of leg movement

(b) Decrease of environmental stimuli

(c) Measurement head circumference daily

(d) Observation serous drainage from nares

Answer- C

Q. 111 When teaching an insulin dependent adolescent client dietary management, the nurse should instruct the client to?

(a) Eat all meals at home

(b) Weight all food on a gram scale

(C) Always carry concentrated form glucose

(d) Have parent prepare food separately from rest of family.

Answer- C

Q. 112 Under certain circumstances the virus that causes chickenpox can also be caused?

(a) Athlete's Foot

(b) Herpes Zoster

(C) German Measles

(d) Infectious Hepatitis

Answer- B

Q. 113 When administering I/V fluids to a small, dehydrated infant, the most critical factor confronting the nurse is the?

(a) Assurance of sterility

(b) Calculation of the total necessary intake

(c) Maintenance of the prescribed rate of flow

(d) Maintenance fluid at body temperature

Answer- C

Q. 114 Aminortline is to be given I/V for 20 minutes every eight hours to a 20 month old hospitalized with severe asthma. Before administering the drug, the nurse should?

(a) lake the infant's pulso

(b) Monitor The infant's B.P.

(c) Check the infant's temperature

(d) Administer oxygen to the infant

Answer- A

Q. 115 A 4 year old newly diagnosed leukemia, his placed on bed rest. While assisting morning care, nurse notes bloody expectorant after child has brushed teeth. The nurse should first?

(a) Secure a smaller toothbrush for the child's use

(b) Tell the child to be more careful while brushing the teeth

(c) Record and report incident without alarming child

(d) Rinse child's mouth with half strength hydrogen peroxide

Answer- C

Q. 116 Submerged portion of the iceberg represents?

(a) Undiagnosed cases

(b) Clinical cases

(c) Dead cases

(d) Treated cases

Answer- A

Q. 117 Vaccine that leaves permanent scar?

(a) Measles

(b) DPT

(c) BCG

(d) MMR

Answer- C

Q. 118 Severe muscle wasting, growth failure and loss of subcutaneous fat are features of?

(a) Kwashiorkor

(b) Beri-Beri

(c) Scurvy

(d) Marasmus

Answer- D

Q. 119 Committee which recommended multiple purpose workers?

(a) Mudhaliar committee

(b) Kartar Singh Committee

(c) Bhore committee

(d) Shrivastva committee

Answer- B

Q. 120 Most common method used for identifying community health problems?

(a) Lab tests

(b) Survey

(c) Camp

(d) Health education

Answer- B

Q. 121 Herd immunity is not useful in prevention of?

(a) Polio

(b) Rubella

(c) Tetanus

(d) Measles

Answer- C

Q. 122 Administration of readymade antibodies is an example of?

(a) Active immunity

(b) Passive immunity

(c) Active natural immunity

(d) Passive natural immunity

Answer- B

Q. 123 The constant presence of a disease or infection within a given geographic area is called as?

(a) Pandemic

(b) Sporadic

(c) Epidemic

(d) Endemic

Answer- D

Q. 124 ASHA workers' performance is monitored through?

(a) Number of deliveries attended

(b) Number of visits

(c) Reduction of IMR

(d) Number of training hours attended

Answer- B

Q.125 When was the first round of pulse polio programme stared?

(a) December 1994

(b) December 1995

(c) January 1994

(d) November 1996

Answer- B

Q. 126 Site of BCG vaccination is?

(a) Left thigh

(b) Left deltoid

(c) Right thigh

(d) Right deltoid

Answer- B

Q. 127 Dengue fever is caused due to?

(a) Bacteria

(b) Protozoa

(c) Virus

(d) Fungus

Answer- C

Q. 128 Oral Polio vaccine is prepared from?

(a) Live attenuated organism

(b) Killed organism

(c) Toxoids

(d) Aerobic bacteria

Answer- A

Q. 129 The drug used by health workers in the management of acute respiratory illness is?

(a) Cotrimoxazole

(b) Chloramphenicol

(c) Benzylpenicillin

(d) Gentamicin

Answer- A

Q. 130 Which is the most appropriate for IUD insertion?

(a) During or within 10 days menstruation

(b) During of period of menstrual cycle

(c) Just before menstruation

(d) Five days after menstruation

Answer- D

Q. 131 W.H.O - ORS packet includes all except?

(a) Sodium chloride

(b) Potassium chloride

(c) Sodium bicarbonate

(d) Calcium carbonate

Answer- D

Q. 132 Measures taken to prevent occurrence of disease?

(a) Primary prevention

(b) Secondary prevention

(C) Tertiary prevention

(d) All of the above

Answer- A

Q. 133 Who was the chairman of the Health survey and planning committee?

(a) A.L. Mudaliar

(b) A.K. Mukherjee

(c) M.S. Chadha

(d) Joseph Bhore

Answer- A

Q. 134 The procedure of removal and ligation of the fallopian tube is referred to as?

(a) Mastectomy

(b) Vasectomy

(c) tubectomy

(d) Laparotomy

Answer- C

Q. 135 Primary health centre covers a population of?

(a) 50,000

(b) 30,000

(c) 10,000

(d) 5,000

Answer- B

Q. 136 Hepatitis A infection is?

(a) Fecal-oral route borne disease

(b) Blood borne disease

(c) Air borne disease

(d) Droplet borne disease

Answer- A

Q. 137 Zoonotic disease is?

(a) Rabies

(b) Diphtheria

(c) Rubella

(d) Malaria

Answer- A

Q. 138 Sand fly transmits?

(a) Kala-jar

(b) Enteric fever

(c) Chagas disease

(d) Bubonic plague

Answer- A

Q.139 Communicable disease eradicated from India?

(a) Chicken pox

(b) Rubella

(c) Small pox

(d) Rabies

Answer- C

Q.140 Hookworm enters the body through?

(a) Feco oral route

(b) Through skin

(c) Respiratory tract

(d) Reproductive tract

Answer- B

Q. 141 Dose given for Vitamin A deficiency prophylaxis is?

(a) I lac IU

(b) 30,000 IU

(c) 1.5 lac IU

(d) 2.5 lac IU

Answer- A

Q. 142 Expected weight of a child at one year whose birth weight was 3.5 kg?

(a) 7.5 Kg

(b) 10.5 Kg

(c) 11.5 Kg

(d) 12.5 Kg

Answer- B

Q. 143 The sum of the values of a variable for a set of observations divided by number of observations refers to?

(a) Mean

(b) Median

(C) Mode

(d) Standard deviation

Answer- A

Q. 144 Reliability of a tool includes following features except?

(a) Equivalence

(b) Stability

(c) Internal consistency

(d) Efficiency

Answer- D

Q. 145 A table that shows how often different scores appear in a set of scores is called?

(a) Normal curve

(b) Polygon

(c) Histogram

(d) Distribution

Answer- D

Q. 146 Number of new cases that occur within a specific population within a defined time interval is?

(a) Point prevalence

(b) Incidence

(C) Lifetime prevalence

(d) Period prevalence

Answer- B

Q. 147 The degree of consistency with which an instrument measures the attribute, it is supposed to measure?

(a) Objectivity

(b) Validity

(c) Reliability

(d) Sensitivity

Answer- C

Q. 148 Which is not the element of communication?

(a) Message

(b) Sender

(c) Attention

(d) Channel

Answer- C

Q. 149 Which of the examples of one way communication?

(a) Class lecture

(b) Group discussion

(c) Workshop

(d) Seminar

Answer- A

Q. 150 Which is the responsibility of the State Nursing Council?

(a) Formulation of objectives of nursing care

(b) Preparation job description nursing care

(c) Implementation of INC standards of nursing education

(d) Transfer of nursing staff

Answer- C

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