nursing officer online test series free -200 MCQ question paper
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Q.1 Diagnosis of beta thalassemia is established by:
a) NESTROFT test
b) Hb A C estimation
c) Hb electrophoresis
d) Target cells in peripheral smear
Answer- C
Q.2 NESTROFT test is used for screening of:
(a) Thalassemia
(b) Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
(c) Hereditary Spherocytosis
(d) G6PD deficiency
Answer- A
Q.3 Which of the following is a Quantitative defeat in globin synthesis: -
(a) Thalassemia
(b) Sickle cell Hemoglobinopathy
(c) G6PD deficiency
(d) Diamond - blackfan Syndrome
Answer- B
Q.4 In beta thalassemia, there is:
(a) Increase beta chain, decrease alpha chain
(b) Decrease beta chain, increase alpha chain
(c) Decrease beta chain, decrease alpha chain
(d)Increase beta chain, increase alpha chain
Answer- B
Q. 5 True about aplastic anemia is all Except:
(a) Splenomegaly
(b) Reticulocytopenia
(c ) Thrombocytopenia
(d)Neutropenia
Answer- A
Q.6 Apt with an Hb of G, WBC count of 2000, has a normal different count expects for having 6% blasts: platelets are reduce to 80,000; moderate splenomegaly is present: possible diagnosis is: -
(a) Leukemia
(b) Aplastic anemia
(c) Hemolysis
(d) ITP
Answer- A
Q.7 A 20 yr adult presents with severe hypoplastic anemia. What is most effective treatment:
(a) a- interferon
(b) IL-2
(c) ATG therapy
(d) Bone Marrow transplantation
Answer- D
Q.8 Which of the following represent fetal Hemoglobin (HBF)
(a) Alpha 2 Beta 2
(b) Alpha 2 Gamma 2
(c) Alpha 2 delta 2
(d) delta 4
Answer- B
Q.9 Which of the following is NOT used for iron chelation in thalassemia patients?
(a) Kelfer
(b) Desferal
(c) Deferiprone
(d) penicillamine
Answer- D
Q.10 Hair on end appearance is seen in X rays skull in:
(a) Thalassemia
(b) hydrocephalus
(c) chronic malaria
(d) Sickle cell anaemia
Answer- A
Q.11 All of the following are cause of iron deficiency Anemia, Except:
(a) Chronic renal failure
(b) Celiac Sprue
(c) Hookworms
(d) Carcinoma colon
Answer- A
Q.12Which of the following is true about iron deficiency Anemia: -
(a) Increased serum ferritin
(b) Increase TIBC
(c) Increased Transferrin Saturation
(d) Macrocytic Hypochromic Anemia
Answer- B
Q.13 Best marker for iron Deficiency is:
(a) Serum iron
(b) Serum ferritin
(c) Total iron binding capacity
(d) Transferrin saturation
Answer- B
Q.14 Anemia in chronic renal failure (CRF) is due to:
(a) Decreased erythropoietin production
(b) Iron deficiency
(c) Hypoplastic bone marrow
(d) Decreased folate levels
Answer- A
Q.15 Megaloblastic anemia due to folic acid deficiency is commonly due to:
(a) Inadequate dietary intake
(b) Defective intestinal absorption
(c) Absence of folic acid binding protein in scrum
(d) Absence glutamic acid in intestine
Answer- A
Q.16 Deficiency of the intrinsic factor of Castle cause
(a) Microcytic anemia
(b) Pernicious anemia
(c) Cooley's anemia
(d) Aplastic anemia
Answer- B
Q.17 Primary mechanism of megaloblastic anemia in blind loop syndrome is due to:
(a) Vitamin Biz Malabsorption
(b) vitamin B Deficiency
(c) Folate Malabsorption
(d) Folate deficiency
Answer- B
Q.18 Shilling's test is used to determine deficiency of
(a) Vitamin B12
(b) Vitamin B6
(c) Folic Acid Deficiency
(d) Vitamin D Deficiency
Answer- A
Q.19 Schilling's test may be used to establish a diagnosis of
(a) Intrinsic factor deficiency
(b) Pancreatic Endocrine dysfunction
(c) Megaloblastic anemia from folic acid deficiency
(d) All of the above
Answer- D
Q.20 Megaloblastic anemia should be treated with both folic acid vitamin
B12 because
(a) Folic acid alone causes improvement of hematology symptoms but worsening
of neurological symptoms
(b) It's a factor
(c) It is enzyme
(d) None of these
Answer- A
Q.21 The nurse should instruct a patient who has diagnosis of folic acid
deficiency anaemia to increase intake of which of the following foods?
(a) Dairy products
(b) Green leafy vegetable
(c) Citrus juices
(d) Fish and poultry
Answer- B
Q.22 All of the following are true about sickle cell disease. Except
(a) Mutation is a chain
(b) Symptoms ameliorated by Hbf
(c) Veno Occlusive cries is cause of morbidity
(d) Bone pain is presenting feature
Answer- B
Q..23 Commonest acute presentation of sickle cell anemia is:
(a) Priapism
(b) Bone pain
(c) Fever
(d) Splenomegaly
Answer- B
Q.24 All of the following are plasma protein found in blood, expect one
(a)Albumin
(b) Globulin
(c) Myosin
(d) fibrinogen
Answer- C
Q.25 Oncotic pressure is defined as:
(a) Osmotic pressure by electrolytes in cells
(b) Osmotic pressure caused by plasma colloids in solution
(c) Force within a fluid compartment
(d) Force outside the fluid compartment
Answer- B
Q.26 Carbon dioxide combines with hemoglobin to form:
(a) Deoxyhemoglobin
(b) Reduced hemoglobin
(c) Carbaminohemoglobin
(d) Carboxyhemoglobin
Answer- C
Q.27 Nursing care for a patient who has polycythemia Vera would focus on preventing?
(a) Dysrhythmia
(b) Hypotension
(c) Decubitus ulcers
(d) Thrombosis
Answer- D
Q.28 Helper cells belongs to:
(a) Macrophage
(b) B cells
(c) Macrocytic
(d) Teells
Answer- D
Q..29 Antibodies are produced by:
(a) Plasma cells
(b) Erythrocytes
(c) Monocytes
(d) Basophils
Answer- A
Q.30 One of the following in an anti platelet drug:
(a) Digoxin
(b) Streptokinase
(c) Aspirin
(d) Dobutamine
Answer- C
Q.31 Definitive diagnosis of aplastic anemia into children
(a) Decrease hemoglobin
(b) Decrease level of hematocrit
(c) Increase size of RBC
(d) Bone marrow aspiration
Answer- D
Q..32 Acquired aplastic anemia usually manifests with all except?
(a) purpura
(b) Oral ulcers
(c) Hepatosplenomegaly
(d) Fatigue
Answer-C
Q.33 Conditions precipitate the sickle cell crisis in to a children except
(a) Dehydration
(b) Oxygen Administration
(c) fever
(d) Any type of stress
Answer- B
Q.34 Which among the following is correct method regarding iron supplementation:
(a) Take it along with milk
(b) take it along with lemon juice
(c) Take it along with water
(d) Take it after having food
Answer- B
Q..35 Which of the following activities is Most appropriate for 8 years old with
iron deficiency anaemia ?
(a) Dancing
(b) Playing video games
(c) reading books
(d) Riding cycle
Answer- C
Q.36 Which is correct interpretation made by a nurse regarding iron deficiency anemia:
(a) Decrease reticulocyte count
(b) Increase hemoglobin level
(c) Macrocytic Hypochromic RBC
(d) Microcytic hypochromic RBC
Answer- D
Q.37 The test done to detect hemolytic anaemia In new born in:
(a) Direct Coombs test
(b) platelets counts
(c) Indirect coombs test
(d) blood culture
Answer- A
Q.38 A nurse is caring for an anemic patient, what findings should suggest to her that it is acute blood loss anaemia?
(a) Exertional dyspnea
(b) Easy fainting on exertion
(c) Bradycardia at rest
(d) Postural hypotension
Answer- D
Q..39 the mother has sickle cell disease; Father is normal: Chances of children having sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait respectively are:
(a) 0 and 100%
(b) 25 and 25%
(c) 50 and 50%
(d) 10 and 50%
Answer- A
Q.40 Crew haircut appearance in X-ray skull and Gandy gamna bodies are seen in
(a) G6-PD deficiency
(b) Hodgkin's lymphoma
(c) Hereditary spherocytosis
(d) Sickle cell anaemia
Answer- D
Q.41 Sickle cell anemia leads to resistance towards:
(a) P. Falciparum
(b) P. Ovale
(c) P. Malaria
(d) P. Vivax
Answer- A
Q.42 Morphine sulphate, 2.5mg. IV piggyback, in 10 ml, of normal saline, is prescribe for a
child postoperatively.available medication label 1/15gr per ml, the nurse prepares to add how many ml of morphine sulphate to
10 ml of N saline?
(a) 0.62 ml
(b) 0.82 ml
(c) 1.35 ml
(d) 1.62 ml
Answer- A
Q.43 Doctor has prescribed ampicillin 125 mg IV every six hours. The medication labels reads one gm and reconstitute with 7.4 ml of bacteriostatic water. A nurse prepares to draw
up how many milliliters to administer one dose?
(a) 0 54 ml
(b) 0.92 ml
(c) 1.1 ml
(d)7.4 ml
Answer- B
Q.44 Tensilon test is performed to diagnose
a) Parkinson's disease
b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Myasthenia Gravis
d) Lou Gehrig's disease
Answer-C
Q.45 Assessment of obesity by following measurement except?
(a) Quetelet's index
(b) Broca's index
(c) Corpulence index
(d) Sullivan's index
Answer- D
Q.46 Most commonly reported disease in the post disaster period is?
(a) Acute Respiratory infection
(b) Gastroenteritis
(c) Tetanus
(d) Malaria
Answer- B
Q.47 What is the ABG diagnosis ?
(a) Respiratory alkalosis
(b) Respiratory acidosis
(c) Metabolic acidosis
(d) Normal ABG
Answer- D
Q.48 A patient weighing 80 kg has to be administered dopamine as an intravenous infusion through a micro-drip set at the rate of 10 microgram/kg minute.400 milligram of dopamine is mixed in 500 milliliter of normal saline. If 60 micro-drops=1 milliliter, the calculated drop rate will be?
(a) 30 microdrops/minute
(b) 60 microdrops/minute
(c )90 microdrops/minute
(d) 120 microdrops/minule
Answer- B
Q.49 Identify EDTA tube in the Diagram ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c ) C
(d) D
Answer- D
Q.50 Identify HR, arterial pressure, RR, patient monitor Diagram ?
(a) HR-20, arterial pressure 146/82, RR-146
(b) HR-116, arterial pressure-146/82, RR-20
(c) . HR-116, arterial pressure-146/80, RR-20
(d) HR-146, arterial pressure-116/80, RR-20
Answer- D
Q.51 Bronze baby syndrome is due to?
(a) Phototherapy
(b) Wilson Disease
(c) Chloramphenicol toxicity
(d) Hemochromatosis
Answer- A
Q..52 Antiendomysial antibody is used in screening of?
(a) Myasthenia gravis
(b) Autoimmune hepatitis
(c) Coeliac disease
(d) Graves disease
Answer- C
Q.53 True statement about the ET tube cuff is?
(a) It is low volume high pressure cuff Xerosis
(b) It is high volume low pressure cuff
(c) It is high volume high pressure cuff
(d) It is low volume low pressure cuff
Answer- A
Q.54 A patient of head injury was admitted in icu after surgery. Capnography was being done as a standard of care to monitor EtCO2. The capnograph changed suddenly as shown in figure below. What could be the best explanation of change in capnography?
(a) New onset Pulmonary Embolism
(b) Nothing significant change happened as it is normal phenomenon
(c) Strongly suggest Ventilator disconnection from ET tube
(d) Malignant Hyperthermia
Answer- B
Q.55 Identify the Diagram ?
(a) kernig sign
(b) brudzinski sign
(c) decorticate posture
(d) decerebrate posturing
Answer- C
Q.56 Triangular, pearly-white or yellowish foamy spots on the bulbar conjunctiva on either side of the cornea is known as ?
(a) Keratomalacia
(b) Bitot's spot
(c) Corneal xerosis
(d) Conjunctival
Answer- B
Q.57 Identify the Diagram ?
(a) disconnect mass air flow sensor
(b) flow sensor for ventilator
(c) testing mass air flow sensor
(d) thermal flow sensor
Answer- B
Q.58 A child presented with headache, dizziness, intermittent claudication with occasional dyspnoea. The most probable diagnosis in ?
(a) ASD
(b) PDA
(c) TOF
(d) Coarctation of Aorta
Answer- D
Q.59 A child is below third percentile Height His growth velocity is normal, but chronologic age is more than skeletal age. most likely diagnosis is
(a) Constitutional delay in growth
(b) Genetic short stature
(c) Primordial dwarfism
(d) Hypopituitarism
Answer- A
Q.60 A 32 week preterm infant, weighing 1400 gm, vitals stable, admitted in NICU. What is the best feeding procedure?
(a) Total enteral nutrition
(b) Start IV fluids, introduce feeding from Second day
(c) Total parenteral nutrition
(d) LV. fluid only
Answer- B
Q.61 A patient just shifted to the post cath area from cath lab after successful revascularization by PTCA+Stent to LAD. His cardiac monitor's alarm started beeping all of a sudden. His ECG was as shown below. As a nursing care provider what should be the immediate intervention?
(a) Defibrillation
(b) Oxygen supplementation
(c) Pacemaker
(d) Check for the carotid pulse first
Answer- D
Q.62 Heart rate of the given ecg is?
(a) 72 beats/min
(b) 125 beats/min
(c) 84 beats/min
(d) Cannot be calculated
Answer- A
Q.63 During CPR monitor shows the following ECG?
(a) Inj. Adrenaline 1 mg stat
(b) Inj. Cordarone
(c) Defibrillate
(d) Inj. gluconate
Answer- C
Q..64 Paralysis in Polio is characterized by?
(a) Exaggerated tendon reflexes
(b) Symmetrical paralysis
(c) Tonic paralysis
(d) Lower motor neuron type
Answer- D
Q.65 A client's arterial blood gas report indicates the pH is 7.52, PCO, is 32 mm Hg. and HCO, is 24 mEq/L. What nurse identifies possible causes of these results?
(a) Airway obstruction
(b) Inadequate nutrition
(c) Prolonged gastric suction
(d) Excessive mechanical ventilation
Answer- D
Q..66 Identify the Diagram ?
(a) Low Pyrexia
(b) Moderate pyrexia
(C) High pyrexia
(d) Hyper pyrexia
Answer- B
Q.67 ICD-10 is an abbreviation for the International Statistical Classification of Disease and Related Health Problems (10th revision). It is used for?
(a) CSSD (central sterile supply dept)
(b) Operation Theatre (OT)
(c) Medical Record Dept. (MRD)
(d) Blood Bank
Answer- C
Q.68 A Urine strip for sugar detection was employed to screen diabetics in a community Level of prevention' in this case be?
(a)). Primordial
(b). Primary
(c). Secondary
(d). Tertiary
Answer- C
Q.69 Sweat chloride test is done for -
a) Pancreatic carcinoma
b) Cystic myoma
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Cystic Melanoma
answer-C
Q.70 Which is not true about dengue hemorrhagic sever?
(a) Thrombocytopenia
(b) Hepatomegaly
(c) Shock
(d) Plasma leaking
Answer- C
Q.71 A nurse is assessing a newly admitted patient with a pressure ulcer indicated in the Picture shown below. What stage pressure ulcer should the nurse document on the admission history and physical examination?
(a) Stage 1st
(b). Stage 2nd
(c). Stage 3rd
(d). Stage 4th
Answer- B
Q.72 A Patient presented to the Emergency Room (ER) in severe respiratory distress. Diagnosis of ARDS was made on the basis of history, clinical examination and CXR findings. Patient was intubated immediately. ER Physicians ask you to put the patient on a ventilator and set the Ventilator parameters. Being an Assistant staff nurse in the Emergency Room what strategy will you prefer to ventilate a patient of ARDS ?
(a) Low tidal volume low peep
(b) High tidal volume high peep
(c) High tidal volume low peep
(d) Low tidal volume high peep
Answer- D
Q.73 You are taking care of a patient in medical ICU. The patient is intubated and on mechanical ventilation with volume control mode. In the middle at night the ventilator alarm suddenly starts beeping. The display shows high peak Airway pressure. On auscultation there was no evidence of bronchial-spasm. What could be the next step in the management of
this patient?
(a) Decrease the tidal volume of the patient so that peak pressure will also decrease
(b) Silent the alarm and ignore it
(c) Immediately do endotracheal suction as retained secretion is the most common cause of increased Airway pressure in ventilated patient
(d) Increase the tidal volume so that adequate delivery of tidal volume can be ensured
Answer- C
Q.74 Which following statements are not true?
(a) Lungs are located within the pleural cavity of Thorax
(b) Removal of an entire lung is called as lobectomy
(c) Right lung has 3 lobe while left has 2 lobes
(d) Both lungs weight approximately 1.3 kg
Answer- B
Q.75 Positive Schick test indicates ?
(a) Immunity to diphtheria
(b) Susceptibility to diphtheria
(c) Hypersensitivity to diphtheria
(d) Infection with diphtheria
Answer- B
Q.76 The best approach to prevent cholera epidemic in a community is?
(a). Mass chemoprophylaxis with tetracycline
(b). Vaccination of all individuals
(c). Health education
(d). Safe water and sanitation
Answer-D
Q..77 Accidents happening during weekends?
(a). Cyclic trends
(b). Seasonal trends
(c). Secular trends
(d). Point source epidemic
Answer- A
Q.78 Clotting factor VI is known as ?
(a). Stable factor
(b). Labile factor
(c). Tissue thromboplastin
(d). None of these
Answer- D
Q.79 ECG and EEG are graphical presentations of activities of Heart and Brain respectively. While TEG is the graphical presentation of?
(a). Thermal activity
(b). Thyroid activity
(c). Coagulation profile
(d). None
Answer- C
Q.80 Murmurs are abnormal heart sounds which are found in various heart diseases. Opening Snap is heard in case of ?
(a). Mitral stenosis
(b). Aortic stenosis
(c). Tricuspid regurgitation
(d). Pulmonary stenosis
Answer- A
Q.81 The nursing care provider is supposed to be familiar with the common instruments and machinery used in medical services. The following machine can be easily identified as?
(a) ECMO machine
(b). IABP
(c). Ventilator
(d). Dialysis machine
Answer- C
Q.82 You are posted in the cardiac Care Unit as a staff nurse and managing a patient presented with acute STEMI having blood pressure of 90/60 mm of Hg. The treating physician has order for the following drugs. Which drug will you withhold and reconfirm before giving it to the patient?
(a). Aspirin 325 milligram
(b). Atorvastatin 40 milligram
(c). Inj. NTG
(d). Inj. Noradrenaline
Answer- C
Q.83 Identify the given image
(a). Automatic BP instrument(electronic)
(b). Defibrillator
(c). BiPAP machine
(d). Pacemaker
Answer- D
Q.84 Pharmacovigilance is used?
(a). To monitor drug toxicity
(b). To monitor unauthorized drug manufacture
(c). For monitoring of students
(d). To check costs
Answer- A
Q.85 In pregnancy, all of the following drugs are contraindicated except?
(a). ACE Inhibitors
(b). Angiotensin Receptor Blockers
(c). Propylthiouracil
(d). Thalidomide
Answer- C
Q.86 Thiopentone sodium is used as an "induction agent during General Anesthesia. Short half life of thiopental is due to?
(a). Excretion
(b). Metabolism
(c). Spontaneous degradation
(d). Redistribution
Answer-D
Q.87 All are toxicities seen with amiodarone therapy except?
(a). Pulmonary fibrosis
(b). Corneal microdeposits
(c). Cirrhosis of liver
(d). Productive cough
Answer- D
Q.88 Digoxin toxicity is increased by all except?
(a). Renal impairment
(b). Hyperkalemia
(c). Hypercalcemia
(d). Hypomagnesemia
Answer- B
Q.89 The first country in the South East Asian Region (SEAR) to report AIDS was?
(a). Sri Lanka
(b). India
(c) Thailand
(d). Bangladesh
Answer- C
Q.90 Inclusion body in neurons is seen in ?
(a). Rabies
(b). Diphtheria
(c). Yellow fever
(d). Japanese encephalitis
Answer- A
Q.91 Benedict test in a urine sample is done for detection of
a) Bile pigment
b) Glucose
c) Cholesterol
d) Acetone
answer-B
Q.92 Modifiable risk factors in coronary artery disease are all except
(a). Personality
(b). Smoking
(c). Obesity
(d). Hypertension
Answer- A
Q.93 A patient is admitted in the hospital with the complaint of acute febrile illness. On investigation thrombocytopenia was found. Which of the following tests is expected to be found abnormal in his coagulation profile?
(a) BT
(b). TT
(c) aPTT
(d). PT
Answer- A
Q.94 A patient on antihypertensive therapy complaint of severe dry cough. Which of the following medications should be considered for this side effect?
(a). Loop diuretics
(b). ACE inhibitors
(c) Angiotensin Receptor Blockers
(d) Vasodilators
Answer- B
Q.95 A patient admitted in ICU started complaining of uneasiness and ghabrahat.
The intensivist asked you immediately to get the ABG done and went to attend a call in emergency. You found Following values in the ABC. pH - 7.34, PC0-50 mmHg. HC0 - 22 meq/L, K - 6.2 mmol/L, PO, - 68 mmHg, and Lactate -2.85 mmol/L. On the basis of ABG findings what measures you should take on priority basis in managing the patient?
(a). Application of BiPAP
(b). Anti-hyperkalemic measures
(c). Infusion of soda bicarb (SBC) 50 ml Bolus
(d). Nothing need to be done as everything is within in normal limit
Answer- B
Q.96 A Patient presented in the emergency room with a history of fever with chills since 5 days. On initial evaluation the patient was drowsy and his BP was 84/46 mm of Hg. As an attending nurse in emergency room you are well aware of the fact that this patient is having
(a), Septic shock
(b). Hemorrhagic shock
(c). Cardiogenic shock
(d). Anaphylactic shock
Answer- A
Q.97 Modern trend in nursing education emphasizes on?
(a). Learning by practical
(b). Learning by doing
(c). Learning by exposure
(d). Learning by theoretical
Answer- B
Q.98 Breast milk is rich in all except?
(a). Lactose
(b). PUFA
(c). Sodium
(d). Lactalbumin
Answer- C
Q.99 In which type of leadership does the manager keep the control in his hands?
a). Democratic Style
(b). Autocratie Style
(c). Laissez faire Style
(d). Situational Style
Answer- B
Q.100 Which of the following uses is shown in the image ?
(a). Use for cystocele
(b). Use for laparoscopy
© Use in abortion
(d). use For D & C
Answer- b
Q.101 Which of the following uses is shown in the image ?
(a). Use for cystocele
(b). laparoscopy
© Use in abortion
(d). use For D & C
Answer- D
Q.102 Transmission of Yellow fever was first described by?
(a). Louis Pasteur
(b). Walter Reed
(c), Karl Landsteiner
(d). Ronald Ross
Answer- B
Q.103 Choose the incorrect pair?
(a) Gray baby syndrome: Chloramphenicol
(b). Hand foot syndrome: Tetracycline
(c), Red man syndrome: Vancomycin
(d). Hemolytic Urenic syndrome: Mitomycin
Answer- B
Q.104 A man with chest pain, ST segment depression in leads V1-V4, after one hour should not be given ?
(a). Beta Blocker
(b). Thrombolytic
(c). Morphine
(d). Aspirin
Answer- A
Q.105 The anti-arrhythmic drug of choice in most of the cases of acute paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is?
(a). Adenosine
(b). Amiodarone
(c). Propranolol
(d). Quinidine
Answer- A
Q.106 A 36-month old girl shows frontal bossing and wrist enlargement diagnosis is ?
(a). Rickets
(b). Scurvy
(c). Beri Beri
(d). Osteomalacia
Answer- A
Q.107 To increase awareness of the rural population towards small family norms, the best method is ?
(a). Film Show
(b). Charts and exhibits
(c). Role playing
(d). Television
Answer- C
Q.108 Identify the Diagram ?
(a). oxygen humidifier
(b). oxygen machine
(c). oxygen hood
(d). oxygen sensor
Answer- c
Q.109 The fundamental aim of research in nursing is to?
(a) Provide credibility to the nursing profession
(b) Provide an evidence base for nursing care
(c) Support medical research
(d) Provide research for nurses
Answer- B
Q.110 Egg is said to be ideal food. It is a very good source of all nutrients except?
(a). Carbohydrates and Vitamin C
(b). Protein and Calcium
(c). Fat and Vitamin D
(d). Protein and Iron
Answer- A
Q111 All of the following are Major criteria of Jones in Rheumatic fever except?
(a). Pancarditis
(b). Arthritis
(c). Chorca
(d). Elevated ESR
Answer- D
Q.112 All of the following are examples of nutritional deficiency disease except?
(a). Marasmus
(b). Kwashiorkor
(c). Obesity
(d). Scurvy
Answer- C
Q.113 A patient is under evaluation for CNS Pathology for which the CSF sample was sent to the lab for analysis. Which of the following findings in CSF study is not a normal finding?
(a). Red blood cells
(b). Lactate
(c). White blood cell
(d). Protein
Answer- A
Q.114 Good hydration along with diuretics is a well known therapy for hypercalcemia treatment. Which of the following diuretics can be used to treat hypercalcaemia ?
(a). Hydrochlorothiazide
(b). Spironolactone
(c). Mannitol
(d). Dytor
Answer- A
Q.115 A pregnant female goes to the doctor and asks for the expected date of delivery. Doctor told her that EDD will be 25 July 2016. According to EDD the patient LMP was?
(a), 19 Oct 2015
(b). 18 Oct 2015
(c). 02 May 2017
(d). 01 May 2017
Answer- B
Q.116 A 12 weeks pregnant female with previous history of twin delivery at 38 weeks denotes?
(a). G2 P1
(b). G3 P1
(c). G2 P2
(d). G2 P3
Answer- A
Q.117 Calculation of EDD is done by ?
(a). Naegele's formula
(b). Shirodkar formula
(c). Robin's formula
(d) Chadwick formula
Answer- A
Q.118 Cardinal movements of labour are?
(a). Engagement → descent→ flexion→ internal rotation → extension→ restitution → external rotation → expulsion
(b). Engagement → flexion descent internal rotation extension → expulsion
(c). Engagement → flexion descent → external rotation → expulsion
(d). Engagement extension → internal rotation → external rotation → expulsion
Answer- A
Q.119. Most important diameter of pelvis during labour is?
(a). Interspinous diameter
(b). Oblique diameter of inlet
(c). AP diameter of outlet
(d). Intertuberous diameter
Answer- A
Q.120 The shortest diameter of fetal head is?
(a). Biparietal diameter
(b). Suboccipito Frontal diameter
(c). Occipitofrontal diameter
(d). Bitemporal diameter
Answer- D
Q.121 AP diameter is maximum in which type of pelvis ?
(a). Platypelloid
(b). Android
(c). Anthropoid
(d). Gynecoid
Answer- C
Q.122 All of the following are included in the first stage of labour except?
(a). Effacement of Cervix
(b). Dilatation of Cervix
(c). Crowning of fetal head
(d). Descent of head
Answer- C
Q.123 In bishop score all are included except?
(a). Effacement of cervix
(b). Dilatation of cervix
(c). Situation of head
(d). Interspinous diameter
Answer- D
Q.124 All are signs of placental separation except?
(a). Lengthening of cord
(b). Gushing of blood
(c). Suprapubic bulge
(d). Increase of BP
Answer- D
Q.125 Young lady presents with acute abdominal pain and history of 1.5 months amenorrhoea, on USG examination there is collection of fluid in the pouch of douglas and empty gestational sac. Diagnosis is?
(a). Ectopic pregnancy
(b). Pelvic hematocele
(c). Threatened abortion
(d). Twisted ovarian cyst
Answer- A
Q.126 Identify the cannula diameter ?
14G
16G
17G
18G
Answer- B
Q.127 PCM Antidote–
Naloxone
N- acetylcysteine
Protamine sulphate
Deferoxamine
ANSWER-B
Q.128 In which pelvis one Ala of sacral bone is absent?
(a). Naegele's pelvis
(b). Robert's pelvis
(c). Triradiate pelvis
(d). Osteomalacie pelvis
Answer- A
Q.129 Most common position during labour is?
(a). LOT
(b). LOA
(c). DOA
(d). ROA
Answer- A
Q.130 Which of the following statements is false?
(a). Lambda fuscs at 2-3 month
(b). Coronal suture scene between frontal & parietal bone
(c). Bregma is triangular shaped & fuses at 18 month
(d). Suture are helpful in moulding
Answer- C
Q.131 Vertex presentation seen in which engaging diameter?
(a). Mentovertical
(b). Submentobregmatic
(c). Submentovertical
(d). Suboccipitobregmatic
Answer- D
Q.132. All of the following statements are true Regarding true labour pain except?
(a). Cervical dilatation & effacement seen
(b). Lower abdomen pain radiating to thigh
(c). Absent bag of water
(d). Contractions are regular & frequency increases gradually
Answer- C
Q.133.Partograph shows?
(a). Progression of labour
(b). Induction of labour
(c). Fetal well being
(d). Amount of amniotic fluid
Answer- A
Q.134 Dose of anti D for antenatal prophylaxis in Rh-negative non immunized females?
(a). Single dose of 1100 IU at 28 weeks
(b). Single dose 1500 IU at 28 weeks
(c) Single dose of 600 IU at 28 weeks
(d). Single dose of 1500 IU at 31 weeks
Answer- B
Q.135 Most valuable diagnostic test in case of suspected ectopic pregnancy?
(a). Serial B-hCG levels
(b). Transvaginal USG
(c). Progesterone measurement
(d). Culdocentesis
Answer- B
Q.136 Maximum intensity of FHR in breech presentation is?
(a) Above Umbilicus
(b) Below Umbilicus
(c) Around the Umbilicus
(d) None
Answer- C
Q.137 Following image show which stage of labour
(a) Crowning
(b) Internal rotation
(c) External rotation
(d) Expulsion
Answer- C
Q.138.Identify brow following image presentation of fetus is
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer- b
Q.139 A client arrives at the clinic for the first prenatal assess-ment. the woman tells the nurse that first day of her last normal menstrual period was 19 october 2018. according Nagele's rule expected date of delivery
(a) July 12, 2019
(b) July 26, 2019
(c) August 12, 2019
(d) August 26, 2019
Answer-B
Q.140 The nurse is collecting data during an admission assessment of a client who is pregnancy t with twinst The client has a healthy 5-year old child who was delivered at 38 weeks and tells the nurse that should does not have a history of any type of abortion or fetal demise. according GTPAL nurse document in the client's chart?
(a) G=3. T=2, P=0, A=0. L=1
(b) G=2.T=1, P=0, A=0.L=1
(c) G=1, T=1, P=1, A=0.L=1
(d) G=2, T=0, P=0, A-0.L= 1
Answer- B
Q141.In following partograph duration of uterine contraction is
(a) LESS THAN 20 SEC.
(b) 20-40 SEC
(c) > 40 SEC.
(d) NONE
Answer- B
Q142. Ectopic pregnancy earliest rupture
(a) AMPULA
(b) INTERSTITIAL
(c) ISTHMUS
(d) INFUNDIBULUM
Answer- C
Q.143. Identified the following image
(a) Doyens retractor
(b) Deaver retractor
(c)) Landon's retractor
(d) Self retaining retractor
Answer- C
Q144 Following image show which maneuver
(a) Lovset maneuver
(b) Pinard maneuver
(c) Burn marshal
(d) Mcrobert maneuver
Answer- A
Q.145 Pin index system is a safety feature adopt in anesthesia machines to prevent:
(a) Incorrect attachment of anesthesia machines
(b) Incorrect attachment of anesthesia face masks.
(c) Incorrect inhalation agent delivery
(d) Incorrect gas cylinder attachment.
Answer- D
Q.146 The pin index code of nitrous oxide is:
(a) 2,5
(b) 1,5.
(c)3.5.
(d) 2.6.
Answer- A
Q.147 Gas is filled as liquid in cylinder in:
(A) O2
(b) CO2
(c) N2O
(d) Cyclopropane
Answer- D
Q.148 Color of O2 cylinder
(a) Gray
(b) Orange
(c) Blue
(d) black & white
Answer- D
Q.149 an anesthesia orders a new attendant to bring the oxygen cylinder. He ask the attendant to identify correct cylinder by following color code:
(a) Black cylinders with white shoulders
(b) Black cylinders with grey shoulders
(c) White cylinders with black shoulders
(d) Grey cylinders with white shoulders
Answer- A
Q.150 For high pressure storage of compressed gases cylinders are made up of:
(a) Molybdenum steel
(b) Iron + Mo
(c) visualization
(d) Cast iron
Answer- A
Q.151 which of the following is not used to protect airways:
(a) LMA
(b) Endotracheal tube
(c) Ryles tube
(d) Combitube
Answer-C
Q.152 Which one of following device provides fixed performance oxygen therapy:
(a) Nasal cannula
(b) Venturi mask
(c) O2 by t- peace
(d) Edinburg mask
Answer- B
Q. 153 O2 delivery is regulated by A/E
(a) O2 tent
(b) Venti mask
(c) Poly mask
(d) Novel catheter
Answer- D
Q.154 What will be the diagnosis of the patient in case the nurse found the patient is giving a silly smile. Hallucinations, urinate anywhere and don't maintain personal hygiene.
(a) simple schizophrenia
(b) catatonic schizophrenia
(c) paranoid schizophrenia
d) hebephrenic schizophrenia
Answer- D
Q.155 Associative loosening is the symptom of
(a) Thought
(b) Emotions
(c) Consciousness
(d) Activity
Answer- A
Q.156 laryngeal mask airways (LMA) is used for:
(a) Maintenance of airways
(b) Facilitating laryngeal surgery
(c) Prevention of aspiration
(d) Removing oral secretions
Answer- A
Q.157 Mgso4 Antidote -
a) Ca – gluconate
b) Naloxone
c) Protamine sulphate
d) Deferoxamine
ANSWER-A
Q.158 Heparin Antidote –
a) Naloxone
b) Protamine sulphate
c) Deferoxamine
d) Ca – gluconate
ANSWER-B
Q.159 Which of the following is not an indication for endotracheal intubation?
(a) Maintenance of a patient airway
(b) To provide positive pressure ventilation
(c) Pulmonary toilet
(d) Pneumothorax
Answer- D
Q.160 Mallampati grading is for:
(a) mobility of cervical spine
(b) Mobility of atlanto axial joint
(c) Assignment of free rotation of neck before intubation
(d) inspection of oral cavity before intubation
Answer- D
Q.161 True about endotracheal cuff:
(a) Low-volume, high pressure
(b) Low-volume, low pressure
(c) high-volume, low pressure
(d) high volume, high pressure
Answer- C
Q.162 Sellick maneuver is used to prevent:
(a) Alveolar collapse
(b) hypertension
(c) Aspiration of gastric content
(d) bradycardia
Answer- C
Q.163 sellick's maneuver is used for
(a) To prevent gastric aspiration
(b) To facilitate respiration ition
(c) To reduce dead space
(d) to prevent alveolar collapse
Answer- A
Q.164 size in <6 years old child, of endotracheal tube is:
(a) age +3.5/3.5
(b) Age + 2.5/2.5
(c) Age + 4.5/4.5
(d) Age-4.5/45
Answer- A
Q.165 In infant (full) diameter (mm) length (cm) of ETT used are:
(a) 3.5,16
(b) 7,12
(c)3.5,12
(d) 7,10
Answer- C
Q.166 Nasal intubation is contraindicated in
(a) CSF rhinorrhea
(b) fracture cervical spine
(c ) fracture mandible
(d) Short neck
Answer- A
Q.167 A schizophrenia patient is suffering with symptoms of lack of speech. What is the specific term used to indicate this term in schizophrenia patients?
(a) alogia
(b) aphasia
(c) aphonia
(d) neologism
Answer- A
Q.168 Mr. Ravi is admitted in the psychiatric unit with diagnosis of combined symptoms of catatonic & Hebephrenic schizophrenia. What is the term used to indicate this type of schizophrenic situation?
(a) propks schizophrenia
(b) residual schizophrenia
(c) nuclear schizophrenia
(d) paranoid schizophrenia
Answer- C
Q.169 A male patient presenting the sign & symptoms of persecution, suspiciousness, hypochondriasis behavior and poor IPR maybe having -
(a) simple schizophrenia
(b) hebephrenic schizophrenia
(c) paranoid schizophrenia
(d) nuclear schizophrenia
Answer- C
Q.170 An autoclave is used for:
(a) Dry heat sterilization
(b) Moist heat sterilization
(c) chemical sterilization
(d) gaseous sterilization
Answer- B
Q.171 HIV contaminated waste products can be decontaminated by the following
agents expect
(a) Sodium hypochlorite
(b) Formaldehyde
(c) Glutaraldehyde
(d) Methanol
Answer- D
Q.172 Red heat is used for sterilization of:
(a) Inoculating wires and loops
(b) All-glass syringes
(c) Soiled dressing
(d) Glass slides
Answer- A
Q.173 Fumigation with formalin vapor is commonly used to sterilize and disinfect
(a) Operation room
(b) scrubbing room
(c ) Nursing room
(d) sterilization room
Answer- A
Q.174 Endoscopie catheter are sterilizing by:
(a)Boiling for 10min
(b) Autoclaving
(c) 5% savlon
(d) 2% glutaraldehyde
Answer- A
Q. 175 Time required for autoclaving at 15lbs per square inch pressure and 121°C
temperature is :
(a) 15 minutes
(b) 30 minutes
(c) 20 minutes
(d) 25 minutes
Answer- A
Q.176 A nurse is educating a client who is taking Q for paranoid schizophrenia. What should the nurse emphasize about the side effects of clozapine?
(a) Dizziness upon standing
(b) Inability to sit still
(c) Risk for falls
(d) Increase in temperature
Answer- D
Q.177 A patient of schizophrenia was started on a new drug. After 3 months she complained of weight gain and her Hbale was 8. What is the most likely drug?
(a) Haloperidol
(b) Olanzapine
(c) Loxapine
(d) Risperidone
Answer- B
Q.178 Consumption of tyramine rich food by a patient who is on monoamine oxidase inhibitor therapy may leads to
(a) Glaucoma
(b) Insomnia
(c) Vomiting
(d) Hypertensive crisis
Answer- D
Q.179 Benzodiazepine reduces anxiety by acting on which neurotransmitter?
(a) GABA
(b) Serotonin
(c) Dopamine
(d) Noradrenaline
Answer- A
Q.180 A client newly diagnosed with bipolar disorder was prescribed lithium medicine. While giving the health teaching the client keeps asking about why there is a need for frequent blood work. Which of the following statement of the nurse addressing the client's question is true
(a) It will help determine if the medication dosage is still within the therapeutic level
(b) Frequent blood works is unnecessary once medication is taken as ordered
(c) It will help identify if the liver has been working properly
(d) It will monitor if the medication already pass the blood brain barrier nt
Answer- A
Q.181 A client receiving lithium therapy for treatment of his bipolar disorder has a lithium level of 0.85meq/L. The appropriate nursing action is
(a) Observe the client for sign of toxicity
(b) Notify the physician immediately
(c) Record the laboratory results in client's chart
(d) Hold the next dose of lithium
Answer- C
Q.182 The most common cardiac abnormality associated with use of lithium in 1st trimester of pregnancy?
(a) Deacon's syndrome
(b) Ebstein's anomaly of tricuspid
(c) PDA
(d)Coarctation of aorta
Answer- B
Q.183 Absolute Contraindication of ECT?
(a) Diabetic retinopathy
(b) Brain tumor
(c) Peripheral neuritis
(d) None of these
Answer- B
Q.184 Q1. At what time between 8 & 9 o'clock are the hands opposite to each other?
(a).8:10 10/11
(b).8:46 4/11
(c ).8:05 5/11
(d).8:30
Answer- A
Q.185 At what time between 1 & 2 O'clock are the hands together?
(a). 1:03 5/11
(b). 1:05 5/11
(c).1:65/11
(d). None
Answer-B
Q186 How many times are the opposite to each other in a day?
(a).11 times
(b) 22 times
(c ).44 times
(d). None
Answer- B
Q187 How many leap years in a century?
(a).12
(b).48
(c ) 24
(d).97
Answer-D
Q.188 How many times 29 feb will come in 400 years?
(a) 24
(b) 72
(c ) 48
(d) 97
Answer- D
Q.189 If today is Monday then what will be after 36 days?
(a) Monday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Sunday
Answer- B
Q.190 At what time between 7:00 & 8:00 O'clock are the hands at an angle of 45o ?
(a). 7:20
(b). 7:30
(c). 7:46 4/10
(d).7:40
Answer- B
Q.191. What is the angle between both the hands at 7:307
(a) 44o
(b) 30o
(c)315o
(d)None
Answer- C
Q.192. From 12:00 noon to 3:45 PM how much angle is covered by hour hand?
(a)110o
(b).112o
(c) 110 1/2o
(d).112 1/2o
Answer- D
Q.193. If south-east becomes north, north-east becomes west and so on then what becomes west?
(a). North-East
(b). South-East
(c). North-West
(d). South-West
(e). South
Answer- C
Q.194 Incentive spirometry is mainly used to:
(a) Prevent atelectasis
(b) Prevent pneumothorax
(c) Promote wound drainage
(d) promote early ambulation
Answer- A
Q.195 In wound healing process, the formation
(a) Inflammatory phase
(b) Proliferative phase
(c) Homeostasis phase
(d) Maturation phase
Answer- B
Q.196 For measuring central venous pressure (CVP), it must be 'zeroed' at the level of :
(a) Right atrium
(b) right ventricle
(c) left atrium
(d) left ventricle
Answer- B
Q.197 five teaspoon is equivalent to how many (ml): -
(a) 30 ml
(b) 25ml
(c ) 12ml
(d) 22ml
Answer- B
Q.198 98.6F is equal to:
(a) 36.5°C
(b) 37.2°c
(c) 37°
(d) 38°C
Answer- C
Q.199 Before giving blood transfusion a nurse must note the date, time of collection and must
be aware that packed RBCS can be stored up to:
(a) 25 days
(b) 35 days
(c) 45 days
(d) 45 days
Answer- B
Q.200 What is the usual site of intramuscular injection a nurse will choose in an adult for Z-track techniques: -
(a)Deltoid
(b) Rectus femoris
(c) ventrogluteal
(d) vastus lateralis
Answer- C
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