community health nursing quiz questions / question about community health nursing

 community health nursing quiz questions part-2

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51. Which committee focused upon integration of health services

a) Bhore

b) Mudaloer

c) Jungalwala

d) Kartar singh

Answer -c ( The jungalwalla committee was constituted in 1967 with the aim to integrate the health services under the chairmanship of Dr. N. Jungalwala )

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52. Which committee was constituted for strengthening the medical education & support manpower

a) Kartar singh

b) Shrivastav

c) Jungalwala

d) Bhore

Answer -b (Shrivastav committee introduced in 1975 & named as group on Medical Education & Support Manpower )

53. Rural health scheme was launched in to

a) 1975

b) 1977

c) 1951

d) 1962

Answer -b

54. The treatment of tuberculosis is called as DOTS because (AIIMS, 2010)

a) It's a communicable disease

b) Dots indicates name of the drugs

c) Treatment given under observation

d) Treatment given in various intervals

Answer -c (DOTS means direct observation treatment short course, means the treatment of tuberculosis is strictly given under the observation of health care staff )

55. A patient is on DOTS therapy & his urine color turns in to red, this happens due to intake of

a) Rifampicin

b) Streptomycin

c) Ethambutol

d) Pyrazinamide

Answer -a (The drug rifampicin turns the color of urine into red. This drug should be given on empty stomach )

56. BCG is a

a) Live vaccine

b) Killed vaccine

c) Toxoid

d) Immunoglobulin

Answer -a

57. The causative organism of plague is


b) Yersinia pestis

c) C. botulism

d) Virus

Answer -b (Yersinia pestis is an organism responsible for plague. H1N1 causes swine flu.)

58. Which is not a criteria of stillbirth

a) Fetal death weighing 1000 gm or more

b) Fetal death of more than 28 weeks gestation

c) Death after expulsion of fetus

d) Expressed in 1000 total birth

Answer -c (Stillbirth is a expulsion of dead product of conception. If a fetus weighing more than 1000 gm or after 28 weeks gestation is to be considered as stillbirth )

59. National tuberculosis programme was started in

a) 1992

b) 1982

c) 1972

d) 1962

Answer -d

60. Polio is a

a) DNA viral disease

b) RNA viral disease

c) Bacterial disease

d) Protozoal disease

Answer -b (Polio is a viral disease caused by polio virus which is a RNA virus )

61. Polio vial should not be used when VVM color changed into

a) White

b) Red

c) Green

d) Blue

Answer -a ( )

62. Tripod sign is characteristic sign of

a) Diphtheria

b) Pertussis

c) Palio

d) Tetanus

Answer -c (A polio infection is characterized by nausea, vomiting, sore throat, stiffness & tripod sign )

63. Ora! polio vaccine is a


a) Killed vaccine

b) Live vaccine

c) Both forms

d) Toxoid

Answer -b ( Oral polio vaccine is sabin vaccine which is live attenuated trivalent vaccine )

64. Which method used to remove temporary hardness of water is

a) Base exchange process

b) Permutit method

c) Clark's method

d) All of above

Answer -c (The temporary hardness of water can be removed by Clark's method of adding lime into water. The Base Exchange method of removal hardness is used for permanent hardness )

65. Polio vaccine which is given orally is known as

a) Salk

b) Sabin

c) Both

d) None

Answer -b ( Oral polio vaccine is sabin vaccine )

66. The most common site to administer hepatitis vaccine

a) Deltoid

b) Gluteal

c) Medial

d) Lateral

Answer -a (Deltoid muscle is preferred for vaccination of hepatitis )

67. Which disease is declared as eradicated from India (AIIMS, 2010)

a) Polio

b) Tetanus

c) Guineworm

d) Ascariasis

Answer -c (India was declared as free of guineworm in the year 1996 )

68. The characteristic of feces in enteric fever is

a) Rice water diarrhea

b) Pea-soup diarrhea

c) Constipation

d) Hard bulky stool stained with blood

Answer -b (The stool in enteric fever or typhoid is pea-shaped stool. In cholera the stool is watery stool )

69. Positive Widal test means patient is suffering from

a) Cholera

b) Dengue

c) Diarrhoea

d) Typhoid

Answer -d (WIDAL is positive in case when it is infected with salmonella typhi or typhoid fever )

70. The virus of dengue fever is

a) Aedes aegypti

b) Female anopheles

c) Arbovirus


Answer -c (Arbovirus is a causative organism for dengue. Aedes aegypti is a mosquito which is a vector for viruses. H1N1 is causative organism for swine flu )

71. Which is a break bone fever (EST)

a) Malaria

b) Typhoid

c) Pertussis

d) Dengue

Answer -d ( Classical dengue is known as break bone fever )

72. A patient referred from CHC with jaw lock & opisthotonus positioning, what may be the possible diagnosis of patient

a) Diphtheria

b) Hypocalcaemia

c) Tetanus

d) Leprosy

Answer -c (Jaw locking with opisthotonus positioning is present in a case suffered from tetanus caused by C. tetani )

73. The route of hepatitis vaccine is

a) IM

b) I/V

c) S/C

d) I/D

Answer -a (Hepatitis vaccination is done intramuscularly )

74. Which disease is known as Hansen's' disease

a) Epilepsy

b) Tetanus

c) Diphtheria

d) Leprosy

Answer -d (Leprosy is known as Hansen's disease or social disease caused by M.leprae, a acid fast bacteria. )

75. The treatment given to a leprosy patient is

a) MDT



d) CPR

Answer -a (MDT (multi drug therapy) is the treatment for leprosy & the drug of choice is Dapsone(it's a hemolytic drug) )

76. The measles vaccine should be given at the age of (AIIMS,2010)

a) 0 month

b) 1 month

c) 9 month

d) 1 year

Answer -c

77. The reconstituted measles vaccine should be used within

a) 1 hour

b) 3 hour

c) 7 hour

d) 9 hour

Answer -a (Reconstituted vaccines should be used up to one hour, it should be keep in touch with ice or in refrigerator )

78. Toxic shock syndrome is an adverse effect of which vaccination

a) BCG

b) DPT.

c) Polio

d) Measles

Answer -d ( )

79. The DPT vaccine should be given at the

a) Deltoid

b) Gluteal

c) Lateral aspect of thigh

d) Medial asоect of thigh

Answer -c (The lateral aspect of thigh is preferred for DPT vaccination, it is given IM )

80. BCG is a (RPSC)

a) Live vaccine

b) Killed vaccine

c) Toxoid

d) Immunoglobulin

Answer -a (BCG is a live attenuated vaccine )

81. Which solvent is used for dilution of BCG vaccine

a) Distilled water

b) Normal saline

c) General tape water

d) Any available water

Answer -b (Normal saline 0.9% is used for dilution of BCG vaccine, Distilled water may cause irritation )

82. The village health guide scheme in India was - introduced in

a) 2nd Oct.2002

b) 1st April 2002

c) 2nd Oct 1977

d) 1st April 1977

Answer -c (VHG was introduced in India on Oct 2nd 1977 with the aim to secure public participation in their health care services )

83. At birth the dose of BCG vaccine is

a) 0.1 ml

b) 0.5 ml

c) 0.05 ml

d) 1 ml

Answer -c (Below one month the dose of vaccine is 0.05 ml & after that 0.1 ml intradermally given )

84. The route of BCG vaccine is (AIIMS 2010)

a) S/C

b) I/D

c) IM

d) I/V

Answer -b

85. Which is not under primary health care level

a) Village level

b) SC

c) PHỤ

d) CHC

Answer -d (Primary health care services includes at village level, sub center level & primary health center level )

86. The disease that is declared as eradicated (PGI, Chandigarh)

a) Polio

b) Chickenpox

c) Smallpox

d) Measles

Answer -c (Smallpox is declared as eradicated globally )

87. The number of live birth during a year per 1000 of estimated mid-year population is termed as (PGI, CI)

a) Crude birth rate

b) General birth rate

c) Birth rate

d) Gross birth rate

Answer -c ( )

88. Which vaccine is stored at -20 C


a) DPT

b) BCG

c) Polio

d) Measles

Answer -c ( The non stabilizing polio vaccine is stored at -20 C in deep freezing condition while stabilized vaccine is stored at 4 C )

89. Which is not true about polio vaccination

a) Breast milk should be withheld at least half an hour after vaccination

b) It is contraindicated in leukemia

c) It's a trivalent vaccine

d) The doses are 2 drops orally

Answer -a ( A child after taking 2 drops orally can be breast feed after vaccination )

90. While doing skin test for tuberculosis, the doses of PPD (AIIMS)

a) 0.1 ml

b) 0.5 ml

c) 1 ml

d) 0.05 ml

Answer -a (0.1 ml purified protein derivative is administered intradermally for tuberculin test & results are interpreted after 72 hours by seeing area of induration )

91. The route of Monteux test is

a) S/C

b) I/D

c) IM

d) Inhalation

Answer -b

92. The standard lining of the bricks in a sanitary well should be

a) 20 feet in depth & 3 feet above ground

b) 20 feet above ground & 3 feet in depth

c) 10 feet in depth & 10 feet above ground

d) 10 feet in depth & 5 feet above ground

Answer -a (In a sanitary well the lining of bricks should be 20 feet in depth & 2-3 feet above the ground level )

93. Pleomorphic skin rashes is characteristic features of which communicable disease

a) Smallpox

b) Chickenpox

c) Measles

d) Rubella is

Answer -b (Pleomorphic skin rashes means all kinds of rashes like macule, papule, vesicles & pustules are present at a single point of time in a person. In chicken pox such kind of skin rashes can be seen )

94. Actions taken to halt the progress of disease & prevent complications are (AIIMS 2010)

a) Primordial prevention

b) Primary prevention

c) Secondary prevention

d) Tertiary prevention ,

Answer -c (Secondary prevention is early detection & treatment of disease so that complications can be prevented. All the screening investigation & treatment focusing the halt of disease comes under secondary prevention )

95. Which is not a stage of water purification at large scale

a) Storage

b) Filtration

c) Autoclaving

d) Disinfection

Answer -c ( At large scale water is purified by Storage Filtration Disinfection )

96. The disinfecting action of chlorine is due to

a) Chlorine ons

b) Hydrochloric acid

c) Hypochlorous acid

d) Hydrogen ions

Answer -c (The chlorine forms hypochlorous acid when added into water. This acid is lethal for microorganisms. H2O+ Cl2 =HOCL )

97. Which committee was introduced before 1950 in India

a) Bhore

b) Mudalier

c) Jungalwala

d) Kartar singh

Answer -a (Bhore committee was introduced in india in 1946. Mudalier was in 1962, jungalwalla committee in 1967 & kartar singh committee in 1973 )

98. The emergency disinfection of water is

a) Chlorine

b) Ozone

c) Hypochlorite

d) Iodine

Answer -d (Iodine is an emergency disinfectant. Two drops of 2% solution is used to disinfect one liter of water )

99. The temporary hardness of water due to presence

a) Calcium bicarbonate

b) Calcium sulphate

c) Magnesium sulphate

d) Zinc oxide

Answer -a ( The temporary hardness of water is due to the presence of bicarbonates of calcium & magnesium salt. The sulfates causes permanent hardness of water )

100. The normal humidity of environment should be

a) 20-30%

b) 30-60%

c) 60-90%

d) 100%

Answer -b

101. The hardness of drinking water is

a) 0-1

b) 1-3

c) 3-6

d) More than 6

Answer -b (The level of water hardness is Less than one=soft water, 1-3=moderate hard water, suitable for drinking purpose, 3-6=hard water More than 6 = very hard water )

102. The reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used within

a) 1 hour

b) 2 hour

c) 3 hour

d) 4 hour

Answer -c (A BCG vial after reconstitution can be used up to 3 hours, after that it should be discarded properly )

103. The health survey & planning committee is named as (RPSC,2010)

a) Bhore committee

b) Mudalier committee

c) Mukherje committee

d) Kartar singh committee

Answer -b (Under the chairmanship of Dr. A.L Mudalier Govt of India constituted a committee in 1962 nanied as health survey & planning committee )

104. The recommended maximum noise is

a) 65 db

b) 85 db

c) 100 db

d) 105 db

Answer -b (The conversation can be possible in 60 to 65 db & recommended maximum level of noise in the environment is 85 db. Above this level of noise can cause severe adverse impact on health )


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