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 musculoskeletal system quiz

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Q.1. Bone is a

1. Epithelial tissue

2. Connective tissue

3. Muscular tissue

4. Nervous tissue

Correct answer- Connective tissue

Q.2. The degenerative non-inflammatory disease of joints is known as

1. Arthritis

2. Osteoarthritis

3. Gout

4. Paget's disease

Correct answer- Osteoarthritis

Q.3. Which bone is a sesamoid bone

1. Femur

2. Humerus

3. Sternum

4. Patella

Correct answer- Patella

Q.4. Diaphysis in a long bone is

1. Upper end

2. Lower end

3. Middle part

4. None of these

Correct answer- Middle part

Q.5. A person is suffering from gouty arthritis, as a nurse what kind of diet you will advise to that person

1. High purine, high calorie diet

2. High purine diet

3. Low purine diet

4. High protein diet

Correct answer- Low purine diet

Q.6. The composition of a bone is

1. Ca salt & clastic tissues

2. Ca salt & collagen tissue

3. Mg salt & collagen tissue

4. Mg salt & fibrous tissues

Correct answer- Ca salt & collagen tissue

Q 7. Haversian system is present in

1. Neurone

2. Nephron

3. Bone

4. Lung

Correct answer- Bone

Q.8. Stretching of a tendon or muscle is known as

1. Strain

2. Sprain

3. Twisting

4. fracture

Correct answer- Strain

Q.9. Presence of tophi is specific feature of

1. Gouty arthritis

2. Osteoarthritis

3. Osteomalacia

4. Osteoarthritis

Correct answer- Gouty arthritis

Q.10. The plaster of Paris is

1. Ca-phosphate

2. Ca-sulfate

3. Mg -phosphate

4. Mg-sulfate

Correct answer- Ca-phosphate

Q.11. The bone forming cells are

1. Osteoblast

2. Chondroblast

3. Osteoclast

4. Bone marrow

Correct answer- Osteoblast

Q.12.All the vitamins are essential for osteogenesis except

1. Vit A

2. Vit D

3. Vit E

4. Vit C

Correct answer- Vit E

Q.13. A human skeletal have the total number of bones

1. 80

2. 126

3. 206

4. 248

Correct answer- 206

Q.14. The heberden's nodes at the joints of phalanges is

characteristic features of

1. Osteoarthritis

2. Gouty arthritis

3. Osteoporosis

4. Osteitis deformans

Correct answer- Osteoarthritis

Q.15. Skull of human being is made up of

1. 8 bones

2. !3 bones

3. 21 bones

4. 30 bones

Correct answer- 8 bones

Q.16. Foramen magnum is a opening structure which is (

present in

1. Vertebrae

2. Occipital bone

3. Parietal bone

4. Temporal bone

Correct answer- Occipital bone

Q.17. The bone which is horseshoe shaped is

1. Sphenoid

2. Ethmoid

3. Hyaloids

4. Scapula

Correct answer- Hyaloides

Q.18. The disruption in normal integrity of a bone is

1. Sprain

2. Strain

3. Fracture

4. All of above

Correct answer- Fracture

Q.19. The vertebral column have total number of vertebrae

1. 24

2. 26

3. 30

4. 31

Correct answer- 26

Q.20.A junior nurse ask to supervisor about the sprain, the best reply given by supervisor is

1. It's injury of muscles

2. It's stretching of tendons

3. It's stretching of ligaments

4. It's bruising of subcutaneous tissues

Correct answer- It's stretching of ligaments

Q. 21. Atlas is a

1. 1st cervical vertebrae

2. 2nd cervical vertebrae

3. 7th cervical vertebrae

4. None of these

Correct answer- 1st cervical vertebrae

Q.22. The joint between atlas & axis is

1. Fibrous joint

2. Cartilaginous joint

3. Hinge joint

4. Pivot joint

Correct answer- Pivot joint

Q.23. Which bone is known as breast bone

1. Clavicle

2. Tibia

3. Sternum

4. None of these

Correct answer- Sternum

Q.24. Manubrium is a structure of

1. Sternum

2. Clavicle

3. Vertebrae

4. Femur

Correct answer- Sternum

Q.25. A fracture of bone in which fracture lines are radiating

from one central point is known as

1. Burst fracture

2. Oblique fracture

3. Spiral fracture

4. Stellate fracture

Correct answer- Stellate fracture

Q. 26. The condition of bone in which bone tissue decreases

in their density is known as

1. Osteoarthritis

2. Osteoporosis

3. Paget's disease

4. Gout

Correct answer- Osteoporosis

Q. 27. The total number of ribs in a human being is

1. 20

2. 12 pairs

3. 7 pairs

4. 14

Correct answer- 12 pairs

Q. 28. The true ribs are

1. First 7 pairs

2. 8-10 pairs

3. 11-12 pairs

4. All of these

Correct answer- First 7 pairs

Q. 29. The first action to manage a fracture is

1. Fixation

2. Traction

3. Casting

4. Reduction

Correct answer- Reduction

Q.30. The total number of carpal in a wrist is

1. 4

2. 8

3. 12

4. 16

Correct answer- 8

Q.31. number of tarsal bone in human being is

1. 7

2. 8

3. 14

4. 16

Correct answer- 7

Q.32. The imbalance of osteoblast & osteoclast activity may


1. Arthritis

2. Gout

3. Paget's disease

4. None of these

Correct answer- Paget's disease

Q.33. A nurse was eliciting Barlow's test, the finding of test

was positive, what would be diagnosis

1. Club foot

2. Neural tube defect

3. Lordosis

4. Congenital dysplasia of hip

Correct answer- Congenital dysplasia of hip

Q.34.The Brittle Bone Syndrome is

1. Osteogenesis imperfecta

2. Osteitis deformans

3. Osteomalacia

4. Osteoporosis

Correct answer- Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q.35. Symphysis pubis is which kind of joint

1. Fibrous

2. Cartilaginous

3. Synovial

4. None of these

Correct answer- Cartilaginous

Q.36. A 45 year obese woman felt down in bathroom, the

radiological examination reveals that one side of bone is broken while opposite side is flexed, what kind of fracture is present

1. Avulsion

2. Impacted

3. Greenstick

4. Linear

Correct answer- Greenstick

Q.37. The hot spot in a cast indicates

1. Early recover

2. Tight casting

3. Infection

4. Allergy to cast

Correct answer- Infection

Q.38. Which bone is longest & heaviest bone of body

1. Breast bone

2. Shin bone

3. Thigh bone

4. Radius

Correct answer- Thigh bone

Q.39. The fibrous joint is present between

1. Skull bone

2. Vertebrae

3. Symphysis pubis

4. Pelvis & femur

Correct answer- Skull bone

Q.40. The trendelenburg's sign is positive in a child, a nurse

should plan the nursing care of that child for

1. Meningitis

2. Club foot

3. Dysplasia of hip

4. Encephalitis

Correct answer- Dysplasia of hip

Q.41. Dowager's hump is

1. Kyphosis

2. Lordosis

3. Scoliosis

4. None of these

Correct answer- Kyphosis

Q.42. Which is not a ball & socket type joint

1. Elbow

2. Knee

3. Shoulder

4. Phalanges

Correct answer- Phalanges

Q. 43. The early sign of compartment syndrome is

1. Pulselessness

2. Uncontrolled pain

3. Black area distal to cast

4. All of above

Correct answer- Uncontrolled pain

Q. 44. the outward curvature of spine is termed as

1. kyphosis

.2. lordosis

3. scoliosis

4. All of three

Correct answer- kyphosis

Q.45. The joint between the carpal bones is

1. Hinge

2. Gliding

3. Pivot

4. Saddle

Correct answer- Gliding

Q.46.Temporomandibular joint is a

1. Fibrous joint

2. Cartilaginous joint

3. Gliding joint

4. Condyloid joint

Correct answer- Cartilaginous joint

Q.47. Pavlik harness is used to

1. Splint the neck

2. Splint the hip

3. Splint the knee

4. Splint the shoulder

Correct answer- Splint the hip

Q.48. Glenoid cavity is part of

1. Shoulder joint

2. Pelvic joint

3. Elbow Joint

4. Knee joint

Correct answer- Shoulder joint

Q.49. The causative organism of Reiter's syndrome is

1. S. aureus

2. C. trachomatis

3. Pseudomonas

4. E.coli

Correct answer- C. trachomatis

Q.50. Who is at more to develop osteoporosis

1. 10 year old female

2. 55 year old female

3. 25 year old smoker

4. 30 year old drunker

Correct answer- 55 year old female

Q.51. After radiological examination a doctor write the

diagnosis as Colles fracture, the best explanation regarding the injury to the patient given by a nurse is

1. Your collar bone broken in injury

2. Fracture is at your wrist

3. Fracture is at your shoulder joint

4. None of above

Correct answer- Fracture is at your wrist

Q.52. The inadequate mineralization of bones is a condition

named as

1. Osteoporosis

2. Osteomalacia

3. Osteomyelitis

4. Gout

Correct answer- Osteoporosis

Q.53. The average weight used for a skeletal traction should be


1. 15 lb

2. 30 lb

3. 45 lb

4. 60 lb

Correct answer- 30 lb

Q.54. The most common type of clubfoot present in children is

1. Talipes equino varus

2. Talipes equino valgus

3. Talipes calcaneus varus

4. Talipes calcaneovalgus

Correct answer- Talipes equino varus

55. What kind of diet a nurse should advise to a person

suffering from gout

1. Acidic food

2. Alkaline ash food

3. High purine diet

4. Low fluid diet

Correct answer- Alkaline ash food

Q.56. The commonest site of cervical disc herniation is

1. C1-C2

2. C2-C3

3. C3-C4

4. C5-C6

Correct answer- C5-C6

Q.57. The median nerve compression at wrist may cause

a ) Reiter's syndrome

2. Carpal tunnel syndrome

3. Psoriatic arthritis

4. Brittle bone syndrome

Correct answer- Carpal tunnel syndrome

Q.58. The largest & most complex joint of body is

1. Pelvic joint

2. Shoulder joint

3. Hip joint

4. Knee joint

Correct answer- Knee joint

Q 59. The structure that provide an attachment to bone &

muscle is

1. Tendon

2. Ligament

3. Both

4. None of these

Correct answer- Tendon

Q. 60. Which is not included in axial skeletal

1. Hips

2. Cranium

3. Vertebrae

4. Ribs

Correct answer- Hips

Q.61. The most common site of body affected with gouty

arthritis is

1. Great toe

2. Interphalangeal joints .

3. Spine

4. Knee

Correct answer- Great toe

Q.62. The most common site of lumbar disc herniation is

1. L1-L2

2. L2-L3

3. L3-L4

4. L4-L5

Correct answer- L4-L5

Q.63. A nursing officer explaining to a junior nurse about talipes

varus, the most correct statement regarding this is

1. Foot bends inward

2. Foot bends outwards

3. Heels higher than toe

4. Heels lower than toe

Correct answer- Foot bends inward

Q 64. For which kind of arthritis a nurse should advise to a

person to take paraffin bath

1. Gouty arthritis

2. Osteoarthritis

3. Rheumatoid arthritis

4. All of above

Correct answer- Rheumatoid arthritis

Q.65.The presence of Bouchard's nodes are characteristic of

1. Osteo, al acia

2. Osteomyelitis

3. Osteopenia

4. Osteoarthritis

Correct answer- Osteoarthritis

Q.66. Pott's fracture is a fracture of

1. Radius

2. Ulna

3. Fibula

4. Tibia

Correct answer- Fibula

Q.67. Compartment syndrome is mainly caused by

1. Overweight of traction

2. Tight casting

3. Compound fracture

4. Avulsion fracture

Correct answer- Tight casting

Q.68. The mildest form of congenital dysplasia of hip is

1. Acetabular dysplasia

2. Subluxation

3. Dislocation

4. None of above

Correct answer- Acetabular dysplasia

Q.69. A nurse examining a neonate, during examination

Ortolani click is present, what kind of congenital deformity the newborn may have

1. Congenital cardiac problems

2. Congenital hydrocephalus

3. Congenital dysplasia of hip

4. Congenital cataract

Correct answer- Congenital dysplasia of hip

Q.70. The lateral curvature of spine is shown as

1. Kyphosis

2. Lordosis

3. Scoliosis

4. None of these

Correct answer- Scoliosis

Q.71. Through the Adam's test a nurse can detect the

1. Thyroid gland disorder

2. Symmetry of trunk

3. Congenital hip dysplasia

4. All of above

Correct answer- Symmetry of trunk

Q. 72. The spica cast is recommended for the fracture of

1. Clavicle

2. Ribs

3. Hip

4. Ankle

Correct answer- Hip

Q.73. Which laboratory finding is elevated in gouty arthritis

1. Uric acid

2. Calcium

3. Phosphate

4. Potassium

Correct answer- Uric acid

Q. 74. The drug Allopurinol is effective for the treatment of

1. Fracture

2. Osteoarthritis

3. Rheumatoid arthritis

4. Gout

Correct answer- Gout

Q.75. Which is a skeletal muscle relaxant

1. Colchicine

2. Sulfasalazine

3. Baclofen

4. Allopurinol

Correct answer- Baclofen 


Nursing Officer

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