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 PGI nursing officer paper 2016

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nursing officer online test series free -200 MCQ question paper-

Q.1 A Characteristic of infants and young children who have experienced maternal deprivation is

(A) Tendency toward overeating

(B) Responsiveness to stimuli

(C) Proneness to illness

(D) Extreme activity

Correct answer - C

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Q.2 Which appropriate nursing action when caring a patient Have a radium implant for cancer of cervix

(A) Restrict visitors to a 10 minute stay

(B) Store urine in a lead-lined container

(C) nurse Wear a lead apron when giving care

(D) Avoid giving IM injection to gluteal region

Correct answer - C

Q.3 Caput succedaneum is

(A) Birthmark

(B) Swelling face of the baby

(C) Collection of fluid under scalp

(D) Swelling will not cross suture line

Correct answer - C

Q.4. When a patient is in liver failure, which of the following behavioural changes is the most important

(A) Shortness of breath

(B) Lethargy

(C) Fatigue

(D) Nausea

Correct answer - A

Q.5. Under Integrated management of neonatal and childhood illness care is rendered to

(A) Only newbom

(B) Under five children

(C) 2 months to 8 year old children

(D) Age uplo 2 months and 2 months to 5 year old children

Correct answer - D

Q..6 Which of the following clinical finding indicates the patient is experiencing hypokalemia

(A) Edema

(B) Muscle spasms

(C) Kussmaul Breathing

(D) Abdominal distention

Correct answer - D

Q.7. A 10 month old is to receive isolyte-P 240 ml IV in 6 hours. The drop factor of the mini dropper is 60 drops/mt, the nurse should regulate the IV to run at

(A) 30 drops/minute

(B) 40 drops/minute

(C) 2 drops/minute

(D) 20 drops/minute

Correct answer - B

Q..8. Total blood volume of a newborn at birth is

(A) 80 ml/kg

(B) 100 ml/kg

(c) 125 ml/kg

(D) 150 ml/kg

Correct answer - A

Q..9. The enzyme released by the sperm which allows penetration of the ovum is called

(A) Amylase

(B) Hyaluronidase

(C) Trypsin

(D) Protease

Correct answer - B

Q..10, Proteins are required for

(A) Weight reduction

(B) Absorption of calcium

(C) Maintenance of body tissue

(D) Synthesis of steroid hormones

Correct answer - C

Q.11. A patient's physician orders nuclear cardiography and makes an appointment for a thallium scan the purpose of injecting a radioisotope into the bloodstream is to detect

(A) Normal versus abnormal tissue

(B) Damage in areas of the heart

(C) Ventricular function

(D) Myocardial scarring and perfusion

Correct answer - D

Q.12. The reason for using the parenteral route to administer medications includes

(A) Parenteral medications last longer than an oral medication

(B) least expensive method

(C) easier measure accurate dose

(D) The parenteral route allows more rapid absorption than the oral route

Correct answer - D

Q. 13. A skin infection that can be a sequel of a staphylococcal infection is

(A) Herpes simplex

(B) Scabies

(C) Intertrigo

(D) Impetigo

Correct answer - D

Q.. 14. The principal feature of Kwashiorkor is

(A) Visible muscle wasting

(B) Severe fat wasting

(C) Usually good appetite

(D) Oedema in lower legs and face

Correct answer - D

Q.. 15. The safest method of termination of pregnancy before 12 week is

(A) Suction evacuation

(B) Dilatation and curettage

(C) Laminaria tent

(D) Prostaglandins

Correct answer - A

Q.. 16. Inadequate intake of which vitamin by the pregnant woman may cause neural tube defects

(A) Niacin

(B) Riboflavin

(C) Folic acid

(D) Thiamine

Correct answer - C

Q. 17. India accounts for global incidence of tuberculosis

(A) 50%

(B) 25%

(C) 20%

(D) 33%

Correct answer - B

Q. 18. Major cause of blindness in India is

(A) Glaucoma

(B) Refractive error

(C) Cornea blindness

(D) Cataract

Correct answer - D

Q. 19. Involution of uterus is completed by

(A) 6 weeks

(B) 8 weeks

(C) 12 weeks

(D) 16 weeks

Correct answer - A

Q. 20. Which is not a freeze dried vaccine is


(B) Yellow fever


(D) Measles

Correct answer - C

Q. 21. A patient needs an intradermal injection for mantoux test, but he currently has bilateral forearm casts in place. Which at the following would be the best alternate site

(A) Abdomen

(B) Lateral upper arm

(C) Medial upper thigh

(D) Antecubital space

Correct answer - B

Q. 22. A woman has been pushing effectively for 1 hour, a nurse should need at this time is to

(A) Change positions frequently

(B) Ambulate

(C) Consume oral food and fluids

(D) Rest between contractions

Correct answer - D

Q. 23. evaluate a patient condition for cardiac catheterization, the nurse will palpate the pulse

(A) In all extremities

(B) At the insertion site

(C) Distal to the catheter insertion

(D) Above the catheter insertion

Correct answer - C

Q. 24. The uterine blood flow at term

(A) 50 ml/min

(B) 100-150 ml/min

(C) 350-375 ml/min

(D) 500-750 ml/min

Correct answer - D

Q. 25. The mean cardiac output of fetus

(A) 100 ml/kg/minute

(B) 225 ml/kg/minute

(C) 350 ml/kg/minute

(D) 415 ml/kg/minute

Correct answer - C

Q. 26. Which of the following is a preparation of choice for a patient who has been admitted in ED open contaminated injury & no recent history of tetanus immunization

(A) DPT vaccine

(B) Tetanus toxoid

(C) Tetanus antitoxin

(D) Tetanus immunoglobulin

Correct answer - B

Q. 27. Normally newborns lose weight in first week of life

(A) 1% of birth weight

(B) 5% of birth weight

(C) 10% of birth weight

(D) 20% of birth weight

Correct answer - C

Q. 28. The immunity developed as a result of infection by pathogenic organism is

(A) Active immunity

(B) Passive immunity

(C) Natural immunity

(D) Acquired immunity

Correct answer - A

Q. 29. Anti D should be given following Rh +ve delivery within

(A) 06 hours

(B) 24 hours

(C) 72 hours

(D) 07 days

Correct answer - C

Q. 30. ART-DOTS linkages is being established at all

(A) Health centers

(B) ART centers under AIDS control program

(C) Hospitals

(D) TB centers

Correct answer -B

Q. 31. The population served by a sub centre in plain areas is

(A) 1000

(B) 5000

(C) 30000

(D) 80000

Correct answer - B

Q. 32. which vaccine used for prevention of cervical cancer is


(B) IgG

(C) Hep B


Correct answer - D

Q. 33. first person coming sick in an epidemic is called

(A) Primary case

(B) Secondary case

(C) Contact case

(D) Index case

Correct answer - A

Q. 34. Most appropriate age for early primary immunization against TB, Diphtheria, Whooping cough, Tetanus, Polio, Measles and Hepatitis B is

(A) Birth to 6 months

(B) Birth to 9 months

(C) Birth to 1 year

(D) Birth to 18 months

Correct answer - B

Q. 35. EPI includes all vaccines except



(C) Polio


Correct answer - B

Q. 36. A 27 year old female patient is admitted to the hospital for a suspected brain tumor. While assessing patient, nurse would keep in mind that most reliable index of cerebral status is

(A) Pupil response

(B) Deep tendon reflexes

(C) Level of conscious

(D) None of the above

Correct answer - C

Q. 37, Pain felt in calf muscle when the foot is dorsiflexed with the leg extended at the knee is called is

(A) Kernig's sign

(B) Spalding 's sign

(C) Homan's sign

(D). Goodell 's sign

Correct answer - C

Q.38. A young patient who was hit by a car was fortunate because the level at his injury did not interrupt his respiratory function. The spinal cord segments involved with maintaining respiratory function are

(A) Thoracic level 5 and 6

(B) Thoracic level 2 and 3

(C) Cervical level 7 and 8

(D) Cervical level 3 and 4

Correct answer -D

Q.39 Physiological anaemia in pregnant woman is a result of

(A) Poor dietary intake of iron

(B) Increase erythropoiesis

(C) Increased blood volume of women

(D) Increased detoxification demands

Correct answer - C

Q.40. Strawberry spot vagina is seen in

(A) Candida

(B) Trichomonas


(D) Herpes simplex

Correct answer - B

Q.42. vitamin A first dose given at the age of

(A) 1 year

(B) 2 year

(C) 9 months

(D) 6 months

Correct answer - C

Q.43. Normally one year of age birth weight of an infant should increase

(A) 1.5 times

(B) 2 times

(C) 3 times

(D) 4 times

Correct answer - C

Q. 44. Tertiary prevention needed which stage natural history of disease

(A) Pre-pathogenesis

(B) Pathogenesis

(C) Prodromal

(D) Terminal

Correct answer - D

Q.45. A non-stress test is prescribed for a pregnant mother and nurse about the procedure, the nurse tells the client that

(A) This test invasive procedure and requires that an informed consent be signed

(B) The test will take about 2 hours will require close monitoring for 2 hours after procedure is completed

(C) An ultrasound transducer that records fetal heart activity is secured over the abdomen where the fetal heart sound is heard most clearly

(D) The fetus is challenged or stressed by uterine contractions to obtain the necessary information

Correct answer - C

Q. 46. A physician ordered a 24 hours urine specimen. After explaining procedure patient, the nurse collects the first specimen. This specimen is then

(A) Discarded, then the collection begins

(B) Saved part of the 24 hour collection

(C) Tested, then discarded

(D) Placed in a separate container & later added to collection

Correct answer - D

Q. 47. Communicability of measles declines

(A) After onset of fever

(B) During prodromal period

(C) At the time of eruption

(D) After appearance of rash

Correct answer - D

Q. 48. nurse will evaluate most significant complication in patient undergoing chronic peritoneal dialysis which is

(A) Pulmonary embolism

(B) Hypotension

(C) Dyspnea

(D) Peritonitis

Correct answer - D

Q. 49. BCG, Measles, MMR vaccines should be stored in

(A) 10 to 120° C

(B) 20 to 250°C

(C) 2 to 8°C

(D) 15 to 200°C

Correct answer - C

Q. 50. a patient's medical record is needed for evidence for a legal action. You are aware

record is property of

(A) The patient

(B) The patient's lawyer

(C) The court

(D) The health care agency

Correct answer - D

Q. 51. In India which of following function First Referral Units (FRUS)

(A) Sub centres

(B) Primary health centres

(C) Community health centres

(D) Regional hospitals

Correct answer - C

Q. 52. Which clients would nurse identify a being at most risk for developing dissemin

intravascular coagulation (DIC)

(A) A 4th gravida delivered 8 hours ago and has lost 500 ml blood

(B) 2nd gravida diagnosed with dead fetus syndrome

(C) A primigravida with mild pre-eclampsia

(D) A primigravida who delivered a 3.5 kg baby 3 hours ago

Correct answer - B

Q. 53.

Q. 54. A patient diagnosis left ventricular failure and a high pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP). give physician orders dopamine to improve ventricular function. nurse will know medication working if patient

(A) Blood pressure rises

(B) Blood pressure decreases

(C) Cardiac index falls

(D) PCWP rises

Correct answer - A

Q. 55. main objective intensive IEC activities for leprosy program

(A) Cure of illness

(B) Reduction of stigma

(C) Case identification

(D) Eradication of disease

Correct answer - D

Q. 56. Promotion of infant and young child feeding practice is encompassed along with continuation of complementary feeding upto

(A) One year of life

(B) Two years of life

(C) Three years of life

(D) Four years of life

Correct answer - B

Q. 57. Thrombophlebitis is a common complication following vascular surgery. Which signs indicates that a possible thrombus has occurred

(A) Kernig's sign

(B) Hegar's sign

(C) Homan's sign

(D) Brudzinski's sign

Correct answer - C

Q. 58. During a catheter insertion or bladder irrigation, the nurse must use

(A) Sterile equipment and wear sterile gloves

(B) Clean equipment and maintain surgical asepsis

(C) Sterile equipment and maintain medical asepsis

(D) Clean equipment and technique

Correct answer - A

Q. 59. Saffron coloured meconium seen in

(A) Post maturity

(B) TB (C) Breech

(D) Normal in appearance

Correct answer - A

Q.60. The extra calories needed by a woman having singleton pregnancy

(A) 100 Kcal

(1) 200 Koal

(C) 300 Kcal

(D) 500 Kcal

Correct answer - C

Q. 61.

Q. 62. Mantoux test is done to diagnose

(A) Malaria

(B) Filarial

(C) Tuberculosis

(D) Typhoid

Correct answer - C

Q. 63. Symptoms of Bitot's spot are due to the deficiency of

(A) Vit-B

(B) Vit-A

(C) Vit D

(D) Carbohydrates

Correct answer - B

Q. 64.

Q. 65. The results of mantoux tent are rend after

(A) Six hours

(B) 24 hours

(C) 48 hours

(D) 72 hours

Correct answer - D

Q.66. Chikungunya is a non-fatal …...Illness

(A) Viral

(B) Bacterial

(C) Protozoan

(D) Plasmodium

Correct answer - A

Q. 67. Following a liver biopsy, the highest priority assessment of the patient's condition is to check for

(A) Pulmonary edema

(B) Uneven respiratory pattern

(C) Hemorrhage

(D) Pain

Correct answer - C

Q. 68. Strongest stimulus of lactation is by

(A) Metoclopramide


(C) Bromocriptine

(D) Sucking

Correct answer - D

Q. 69. number of death per 1000 population per year in a given community is known as

(A) Crude death rate

(B) Infant death rate

(C) Neonatal death rate

(D) Perinatal death rate

Correct answer - A

Q.70. A pregnant woman admitted in labour room is attached to external electronic fetal monitor nurse should do initial nursing assessment which of the following

(A) Identifying types of the accelerations

(B) Ascending baseline fetal heart rate

(C) Determining frequency of the contractions

(D) Determining intensity of the contractions

Correct answer - B

Q. 71. When serum bilirubin rises on 3rd and 4th day after birth of the baby due to inefficient he

function is known as

(A) Pathological jaundice

(B) Physiological jaundice

(C) Viral hepatitis

(D) Obstructive jaundice

Correct answer - B

Q. 72. A female patient Mrs. Gupta has a cesium needle implanted in her cervix. She asks nurse if she may get out of bed to go bathroom. appropriate response is to tell her

(A) may not get out of bed while needle is implanted

(B) She may not get out of bed with the nurse's help

(C) The nurse will have to get physician's order for her to get out of bed

(D) She must stay in bed, but she can move around to be more comfortable while the needle is implanted

Correct answer - C

Q. 73. Rice water stool is the typical sign of

(A) Cholera

(B) Hepatitis A

(C) Hepatitis B

(D) Dysentery

Correct answer - A

Q. 74. The assessment finding that should be reported immediately should it develop in the patient with acute pancreatitis is

(A) Nausea and vomiting

(B) Abdominal pain

(C) Decreased bowel sounds

(D) Shortness of breath

Correct answer - A

Q. 75. A nurse is assessing a child for dehydration. The nurse determines that the child is moderately dehydrated if which of the symptom is noted

(A) Flat fontanelles

(B) Moist mucous membrane

(C) Pale skin colour

(D) Oliguria

Correct answer - A

Q. 76. e most informative measurement for determining cardiogenic shock

(A) Arterial blood pressure

(B) Central venous pressure

(C) Pulmonary artery pressure

(D) Cardiac index

Correct answer - A

Q. 78. female patient have laparoscopic cholecystectomy this morning. She now complaining of right shoulder pain. nurse explain patient this symptom is

(A) Common following this operation

(B) Expected after general anesthesia

(C) Unusual and will be reported to the surgeon

(D) Indicative need to use incentive spirometer

Correct answer - B

Q. 79. Which immunization produces a permanent scar



(C) Measles vaccination

(D) Hepatitis B vaccination

Correct answer - B

Q. 80. To disinfect 20 litres of water, one should use a single chlorine tablet of

(A) 0.5 g

(B) 1.5 g

(C) 2.5 g

(D) 3.5 g

Correct answer - A


Q.82. Expenditure in health sector on public health is about of the GDP

(A) 1%

(B) 2%

(C) 5%

(D) 6%

Correct answer - C

Q.83. Which of the following system of medicine is of Indian origin

(A) Homeopathy

(B) Siddha

(C) Unani-tibb

(D) Acupuncture

Correct answer - B

Q. 84. Normal crown-rump length at birth is

(A) 20-25 cms

(B) 35-50 cms

(C) 72-80 cms

(D) 78-85 cms

Correct answer - B

Q.85. Immunity by antibody formation during the course of a disease is

(A) Active natural immunity

(B) Active artificial immunity

(C) Passive natural immunity

(D) Passive artificial immunity

Correct answer - A

Q. 86.

Q. 87. Which of the following anti tuberculosis drug is bacteriostatic

(A) Rifampicin

(B) Ethambutol


(D) Streptomycin

Correct answer - B

Q. 88. Which statements best describe health?

(A) A relative state of being

(B) The total state of physical and psychological wellness

(C) functioning well physically, mentally and socially

(D) Being free of sickness or infirmity

Correct answer - C

Q. 89. Tertiary level of prevention of disease is related to

(A) Vaccination

B) Good nutrition

(C) Rehabilitation is normal physical, mental and social health

(D) Good rest and sleep

Correct answer - C

Q 90. Major route of transmission of hepatitis A is

(A) Feco-oral route

(B) Parenteral route

(C) Sexual transmission

(D) Perinatal transmission

Correct answer - A

Q. 91. Placental bad blood circulation through

(A) Villi

(B) Spiral arteries

(C) Chorionic membrane

(D) Umbilical artery

Correct answer - B

Q. 92. danger of convulsion a woman with preeclampsia ends

(A) After labour begins

(B) After delivery occurs

(C) 24 hours postpartum

(D) 48 hours postpartum

Correct answer - D

Q. 93. All of the following are mosquito borne disease Except

(A) Malaria

(B) Kala-azar

(C) KFD (kyasanur forest disease)

(D) Dengue

Correct answer - B

Q. 94. does not protect Herd immunity an individual in

(A) Diphtheria

(B) Poliomyelitis

(C) Smallpox

(D) Tetanus

Correct answer - D

Q. 95. Isoniazid (INH) is prescribed for 3 year old child with positive mantoux test.

Child mother asks nurse how long take the medication. (A) 6 months

(B) 9 months

(C) 12 months

(D) 18 months

Correct answer - A

Q. 96. Which assessment finding is typical of extracellular fluid loss

(A) Distended jugular veins

(B) Elevated hematocrit level

(C) Rapid thread pulse

(D) Increased serum sodium level

Correct answer - D

Q. 97. Specificity is the ability of screening test to identify

(A) True positive

(B) True negative

(C) False positive

(D) False negative

Correct answer - C


Nursing Officer

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